Are you preparing for UP Judicial Services preliminary examination? Here is a solved paper on law for UP Judicial Services preliminary examination!
1. “The most distinctive feature of some societies is that they develop the law, through fiction, equity and legislation.”
This statement relates to:
(a) Primitive societies
(b) Static societies
(c) Progressive societies
(d) Dynamic societies
Ans. (c)
2. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a valid custom:
(a) Antiquity
(b) Continuity
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Peaceful enjoyment
Ans. (c)
3. “Interpretation is that process by which the courts seek to ascertain the meaning of law through medium of authoritative forms in which is expressed.” This statement is of:
(a) Maxwell
(b) Salmond
(c) G.P. Singh
(d) Craise
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following jurists emphasised that “we cannot understand a thing, unless we know what it does”:
(a) Roscoe Pound
(b) Salmond
(c) Austin
(d) Kelsen
Ans. (a)
5. “The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty.” This statement is of:
(a) Duguit
(b) Ihering
(c) Gierke
(d) Salmond
Ans. (a)
6. “Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and divine; the science of just and unjust.” This statement is of:
(a) Keeton
(b) Savigney
(c) Ulpain
(d) Austin
Ans. (c)
7. Which one of the following is not a ‘theory of corporate personality’:
(a) Fiction Theory
(b) Bracket Theory
(c) Realist Theory
(d) Will Theory
Ans. (d)
8. Which one of the following theories of punishment implies that a crime is a disease and the object should be to cure the disease:
(a) Preventive Theory
(b) Deterrent Theory
(c) Reformative Theory
(d) Retributive Theory
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following is not a legal person:
(a) Shiv Idol in Shivalaya
(b) Mosque
(c) Guru Granth Sahib
(d) Unborn child
Ans. (b)
10. Who one is the main propounder of declaratory theory of judicial precedent:
(a) Blackstone
(b) Gray
(c) Salmond
(d) Dicey
Ans. (a)
11. Which one of the following is a ‘theory of legal right’:
(a) Concession theory
(b) Fiction theory
(c) Interest theory
(d) Bracket theory
Ans. (c)
12. The book of ‘Theory of Legislation’ was written by:
(a) H.L.A. Hart
(b) W. Friedmann
(c) Jeremy Bentham
(d) Julius Stone
Ans. (c)
13. “Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents.” This observation specifically relates to:
(a) Stammler
(b) Del Vicchio
(c) Finnis
(d) Dabin
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following has divided justice in two parts – distributive justice and corrective justice:
(a) Dabin
(b) Aristotle
(c) Plato
(d) Acquinas
Ans.(b)
15. A, a revenue officer tortures Z in order to compel him to pay certain arrears of revenue due from Z. A is guilty of an offence under section:
(a) 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(b) 328 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(c) 392 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(d) 330 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
Ans. (d)
16. “Ownership is a plenary control over an object.”
This definition has been given by:
(a) Austin
(b) Holland
(c) Pound
(d) Kelsen
Ans. (b)
17. If an offender is sentenced to an imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) No limit
Ans. (c)
18. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, subject to the restriction laid down under its section 99 in cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends to the voluntary causing of:
(a) Grievous hurt
(b) Death
(c) Any harm other than death
(d) Any harm other than death of grievous hurt
Ans. (b)
19. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 a conspiracy to wage war against the Government of India is punishable:
(a) 120
(b) 120A
(c) 121A
(d) 121
Ans. (c)
20. A abets B to assault C, B murders C:
(a) A is liable for abetment of assaulting C
(b) A is liable for abetment of assaulting and murdering C
(c) A is liable for abetment of murder of C
(d) A is liable for murder
Ans. (a)
21. Under section 65 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, sentence of imprisonment for nonpayment of fine shall be limited to:
(a) One-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
(b) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
(c) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
(d) One-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
Ans. (b)
22. Under which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 promoting animity between different group on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony has been dealt with:
(a) Section 153
(b) Section 153A
(c) Section 153AA
(d) Section 153B
Ans. (b)
23. Under which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 causing death of child in the mother’s womb is not homicide:
(a) Explanation I of Section 299
(b) Explanation II of Section 299
(c) Explanation III of Section 299
(d) Explanation IV of Section 300
Ans. (c)
24. Under which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an accused in order to commit extortion puts the person into fear of death or grievous hurt is punishable:
(a) Section 383
(b) Section 385
(c) Section 386
(d) Section 382
Ans. (c)
25. A, in good faith believing property belonging to Z, to be his own property, take the property out of B’s possession. A is guilty of:
(a) Theft
(b) Criminal misappropriation of property
(c) Criminal breach of trust
(d) No offence
Ans. (d)
26. Article 338A of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a:
(a) National Commission for Backward Classes
(b) National Commission for Scheduled Cates
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
27. A abets B to murder D, B in pursuance to the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the wound. In this case:
(a) A is liable for abetment of murder of D
(b) A is liable for abetment of attempt to murder of D
(c) A is liable for abetment of causing wound to D
(d) A is liable for no offence
Ans. (a)
28. Removal of ornaments from the body of one after causing his death constitutes an offence under section:
(a) 392 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) 379 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) 420 of the Indian Penal Code
(d) 404 of the Indian Penal Code
Ans. (d)
29. Under which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable:
(a) Section 379
(b) Section 381
(c) Section 384
(d) Section 356
Ans. (d)
30. Which one of the following Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to juveniles jurisdiction:
(a) Section 25
(b) Section 26
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 28
Ans. (c)
31. Under which one of the following provisions of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, gives statutory definition of F.I.R.:
(a) Section 154
(b) Section 155
(c) Section 156
(d) Not defined
Ans. (d)
32. Which one of the following countries has passed the law to impeach Supreme Court Judges on 26 April, 2016:
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) Australia
(d) Bangladesh
Ans. (d)
33. Provisions relating to health and safety of arrested persons have been provided under which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973:
(a) Section 50A
(b) Section 53A
(c) Section 55A
(d) Section 60A
Ans. (c)
34. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has recognised “Trans-gender persons” to be persons of “Third-gender”:
(a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(b) NALSAR University Hyderabad v. Union of India
(c) State Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(d) Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation
Ans. (a)
35. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under following section of Indian Penal Code, 1860:
(a) Section 337
(b) Section 228
(c) Section 229
(d) Section 228A
Ans. (d)
36. Under which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 trial of cases can be taken before High Court:
(a) Section 407
(b) Section 474
(c) Section 483
(d) No trial before High Court
Ans. (b)
37. After enactment of the Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, the jurisdiction under section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 to grant maintenance to Muslim women:
(a) Retained
(b) Ceased
(c) Limited
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
38. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the language and contents of judgment:
(a) ‘ Section 353
(b) Section 354
(c) Section 355
(d) Section 356
Ans. (b)
39. Under which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Magistrate Second Class can conduct summary trial:
(a) Section 260
(b) Section 261
(c) Section 262
(d) Section 263
Ans. (b)
40. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 section 190(2) who may empower Magistrate of the Second Class to take cognizance of offences:
(a) High Court
(b) Court of Session
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
41. Warrant case as defined under section 2(X) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding:
(a) 3 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 5 years but not less than two years
Ans. (c)
42. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 prohibits the male police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest:
(a) Proviso to section 41(1)
(b) Proviso to section 42(2)
(c) Proviso to section 46(1)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
43. When a complaint is presented to a Magistrate and the Magistrate proceeds to examine the complainant and the witnesses, the Magistrate:
(a) Is conducting investigation
(b) Is conducting inquiry
(c) Is conducting trial
(d) Is conducting both (b) and (c)
Ans. (b)
44. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, the date of commencement of the period of limitation has been provided under:
(a) Section 467
(b) Section 468
(c) Section 469
(d) Section 470
Ans. (c)
45. A fact, is neither proved nor disproved is said:
(a) Proved
(b) Not proved
(c) Disproved
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
46. ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’ by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with them is:
(a) Relevant fact
(b) Irrelevant fact
(c) Neither relevant nor irrelevant
(d) Fact in issue
Ans. (b)
47. By which one of the following Amendment of the Constitution, Sikkim was included in the States of India:
(a) 36th Amendment
(b) 35th Amendment
(c) 7th Amendment
(d) 5th Amendment
Ans. (a)
48. For which one of the following offences under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 application for anticipatory bail under section 438 can be moved:
(a) Bailable offence
(b) Non-Bailable offence
(c) Cognizable offence
(d) Non-Cognizable offence
Ans. (b)
49. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the doctrine of res gestae applies to:
(a) Only civil proceedings
(b) Only criminal proceedings
(c) Only to administrative tribunals
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
50. Who one of the following is not a competent witness to testify under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(a) Persons capable of understanding the questions put to them by the court
(b) Unchaste woman
(c) Witness unable to speak
(d) Idiot
Ans. (d)
51. In which of the following cases it was held by the court that “the amendment in the constitution is the exercise of legislative function of the Parliament”:
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(d) Keshavand Bharti v. State of Kerala
Ans. (b)
52. Which one of the following is not an exception to the doctrine of estoppel under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(a) When the truth is known to both the parties
(b) On the question of law
(c) On the question of fact
(d) On against the law
Ans. (c)
53. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 power of judge to put questions or order of production of document or thing has been provided under:
(a) Section 163
(b) Section 165
(c) Section 161
(d) Section 166
Ans. (b)
54. During re-examination of witness under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(a) A new matter can be raised as a matter of right generally
(b) No new matter can be raised
(c) A new matter can be raised only with the permission of the court
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
55. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 leading questions whom may generally be asked:
(a) In cross-examination
(b) In examination-in-chief
(c) In re-examination
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
56. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, relevant fact must be:
(a) Legally relevant
(b) Logically relevant
(c) Legally or logically relevant
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
57. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with admissibility of ‘electronic record’:
(a) Section 65
(b) Section 66
(c) Section 65A
(d) Section 65B
Ans. (d)
58. Which one of the following under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not a kind of estoppel:
(a) Estoppel by will
(b) Estoppel by deed
(c) Estoppel by conduct
(d) Estoppel by record
Ans. (a)
59. Mother Teresa was declared a saint by Pop Francis in Vatican City on:
(a) 19 September, 2016
(b) 14 September, 2016
(c) 4 August, 2016
(d) 4 September, 2016
Ans. (d)
60. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for:
(a) Presumption of life
(b) Presumption of marriage
(c) Presumption of death
(d) Presumption of legitimacy
Ans. (c)
61. Order 7 Rule I of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is related to:
(a) Pleadings’s meaning
(b) Written statement
(c) Particulars to be contained to plaint
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
62. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided:
(a) Section 17 of Civil Procedure Code
(b) Section 20 of Civil Procedure Code
(c) Section 19 of Civil Procedure Code
(d) Section 18 of Civil Procedure Code
Ans. (b)
63. Point out the correct answer. Law of Evidence is:
(a) Lex Tellienis
(b) Lex Fori
(c) Lex Loci
(d) Lex Situs.
Ans. (b)
64. Every suit shall be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it. This provision relates to:
(a) Territorial jurisdiction
(b) Pecuniary jurisdiction
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Jurisdiction as to subject-matter
Ans. (c)
65. Court can direct the parties to opt for any one mode of alternative dispute resolution in Civil Procedure Code, 1908:
(a) Under O X, R 1 – A
(b) Under O X, R 1 – B
(c) Under O X, R 1 – C
(d) Under O XI, R 1
Ans. (a)
66. Under Order XXXVIII, Rule 5 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, attachment before judgment can be in respect of:
(a) Immovable property
(b) Movable property
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Attachment cannot be made before judgment
Ans. (c)
67. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908, which one of the properties cannot be attached in execution of a decree:
(a) Books of Account
(b) Land
(c) Bank Notes
(d) Cheques
Ans. (a)
68. Under section 26 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, in every plaint, facts should be proved, by:
(a) Affidavit
(b) Oral evidence
(c) Document
(d) Examination of plaintiff
Ans. (a)
69. In which one of the following cases it was held by the court that “the amendment in the Constitution is the exercise of legislative function of the Parliament”:
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(d) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
Ans. (b)
70. Principle of res-judicata is:
(a) Mandatory
(b) Directory
(c) Discretionary
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
71. A files a suit for declaration that he is entitled to certain land as the heir of C. The suit is dismissed. Subsequently suit is claimed on the basis of adverse possession, subsequent suit is barred on the ground of:
(a) Constructive res-judicata
(b) Actual res-judicata
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
72. What duration formally under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been assigned to submit his written statement after the date of service of summons:
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
73. Under which one of the following provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 consequences of disobedience or breach of injunction has been described:
(a) Order XXXII
(b) Order XXXIII
(c) Order XXXIX, Rule 2A
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
74. ‘Decree’ under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been defined in its:
(a) Section 2(1)
(b) Section 2(2)
(c) Section 2(a)
(d) Section 2(b)
Ans. (a)
75. Under Order V, Rule 9(3) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the expenses for the service of summons to the defendant have to be born by:
(a) The plaintiff
(b) The defendant
(c) The court
(d) Partly by plaintiff and partly by defendant
Ans. (a)
76. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 an ex-party, decree can be set aside:
(a) Order 9, Rule 7
(b) Order 9, Rule 11
(c) Order 9, Rule 13
(d) Order 9, Rule 12
Ans. (c)
77. Which one of the following Orders of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is related to issue Commission:
(a) Order 24
(b) Order 26
(c) Order 25
(d) Order 27
Ans. (b)
78. Under which one of the following sections of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “Legal Representative” has been explained:
(a) Section 2(11
(b) Section 2(13)
(c) Section 2(10)
(d) Section 2(12)
Ans. (a)
79. The courts of small causes under section 3 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is subordinate to which of the following:
(a) High Court only
(b) District Court only
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Ans. (d)
80. Which country has been declared Malaria-free by World Health Organisation on 5 September, 2016:
(a) Pakistan
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Afghanistan
Ans. (c)
81. Under section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the transferee is entitled to the benefits of insurance covered against the loss or damage by:
(a) Fire
(b) Encroachment
(c) Natural calamity
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
82. Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is related to the:
(a) Doctrine of election
(b) Doctrine of cypress
(c) Doctrine of acceleration
(d) Doctrine of apportionment
Ans. (d)
83. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property:
(a) Limited
(b) Absolute
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
84. Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply when the previous suit is pending:
(a) In the same court
(b) In a foreign court
(c) In the court outside India established or carried on
(d) In any other court in India
Ans. (b)
85. Which two countries have reached an agreement on 10 April, 2016 to build a bridge over the Red Sea:
(a) Saudi Arabia and Egypt
(b) Saudi Arabia and Tunisia
(c) Egypt and Greece
(d) France and Morocco
Ans. (a)
86. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which deals with the right to proceeds for revenue compensation is based on:
(a) Doctrine of contribution
(b) Doctrine of election
(c) Doctrine of marshalling
(d) Doctrine of substituted security
Ans. (a)
87. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Sale is a transfer of:
(a) An interest in a specific immovable property
(b) A right to enjoy immovable property
(c) Ownership
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
88. Which one of the following is a transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
(a) Charge
(b) Partition
(c) Transfer of debt
(d) Surrender
Ans. (c)
89. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following properties may be transferred:
(a) An easementary right from the dominant heritage
(b) Mere right to sue
(c) Right to future maintenance
(d) Actionable claim
Ans. (d)
90. An agreement to develop Chahbahar in Iran as an international transport corridor was finalized amongst:
(a) India, Iran and Pakistan
(b) India, Afghanistan and Iran
(c) India, Afghanistan and Iraq
(d) India, Pakistan and Afghanistan
Ans. (b)
91. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazara is related to:
(a) Doctrine of election
(b) Doctrine of part performance
(c) Transfer by unauthorised person
(d) Ostensible owner
Ans. (d)
92. Under Transfer of Property, 1882, remedy of ‘foreclosure’ is available under which one of the following mortgages:
(a) Mortgage by conditional sale
(b) English mortgage
(c) Usufructuary mortgage
(d) Simple mortgage
93. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, A transfer Rs. 5,000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E, E dies. B marries with the consent of C and D:
(a) Marriage is valid.
(b) Marriage is invalid.
(c) Marriage is voidable.
(d) Marriage is void.
Ans. (a)
94. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer Property Act, 1882 says that “a transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law”:
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 9
Ans. (d)
95. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when can a unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer for his benefit:
(a) Upon his birth
(b) Upon completing his majority age
(c) Upon his marriage
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
96. World Refugee Day is observed every year on:
(a) 20 June
(b) 20 July
(c) 20 August
(d) 20 September
Ans. (a)
97. Which one of the following countries has become 35th Member of Missile Technology Control Regime:
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Indonesia
Ans. (a)
98. On which date, India ratified the ‘Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damages, 1997’:
(a) 6 February, 2016
(b) 15 February, 2016
(c) 22 January, 2016
(d) 4 February, 2016
Ans. (d)
99. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from exercising the right of membership by:
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Security Council
(c) The Secretary General
(d) The General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council
Ans. (d)
100. According to section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ‘instrument’ means:
(a) Testamentary instrument
(b) Non-testamentary instrument
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
101. The action required to carry out the decision of Security Council for maintenance of International Peace and Security shall be taken by which one of the following:
(a) All the members of the United Nations or some of them as the Security Council may determine
(b) All the members of Security Council
(c) The General Assembly by its majority vote
(d) All the above
Ans. (a)
102. Author of ‘De Jure belli ac pads’ is:
(a) Hobbes
(b) Bentham
(c) Grotious
(d) Austin
Ans. (c)
103. Which one of the following organ of the United Nations perform legislative functions:
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Economic and Social Council
(c) The Trusteeship Council
(d) The Security Council
Ans. (a)
104. Which one of the following Articles of the UN Charter relates to Domestic Jurisdiction:
(a) Article 2(7)
(b) Article 23
(c) Article 51
(d) Article 72
Ans. (a)
105. 4th India-Africa Hydrocarbons Conference was organised in:
(a) Goa
(b) New Delhi
(c) Johannesburg
(d) Durban
Ans. (b)
106. The Nehru-Liaquat Pact between India and Pakistan was assigned in 1950 to resolve the issue for:
(a) The protection of minorities
(b) The accession of princely states
Guide to UP Judicial Service
(c) The border disputes
(d) The problem of refugees
107. A State is admitted to the membership of the United Nations by:
(a) The Security Council only
(b) The General Assembly after approval from the Security Council
(c) The General Assembly only
(d) United Nations Secretariat
Ans. (b)
108. Which one authority of the following is entitled with the task of enforcement of the judgments of the International Court of Justice:
(a) The General Assembly of the United Nations
(b) The Security Council of the United Nations
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The International Court of Justice itself
Ans. (b)
109. The first arrest warrant by the International Criminal Court was issued in:
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Ans. (c)
110. Which two countries have signed two new agreements on solar energy and nano technology on 15 June, 2016:
(a) India and America
(b) India and United Kingdom
(c) America and France
(d) China and South Korea
Ans. (b)
111. A new social security agreement signed between India and Australia has come into operation on:
(a) 10 January, 2016
(b) 1 January, 2016
(c) 1 February, 2016
(d) 15 February, 2016
Ans. (b)
112. International Conference on Cooperative Federalism was organised on 21st January, 2016:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Washington
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (d)
113. Which one of the following is essential for a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
(a) Meeting of minds of the parties
(b) Meeting of the parties for searching legality of rights
(c) Meeting of the parties to discuss consideration
(d) Meeting of parties to discuss proposal and acceptance
Ans. (a)
114. Point out the correct item shown below: There may a contract without consideration if:
(a) The agreement is in writing and registered.
(b) The parties to the agreement are near relatives.
(c) The agreement is made due to natural love and affection.
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
115. With which country, India has signed a memorandum of understanding for construction of six nuclear reactors at Jaitapur:
(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) Israel
(d) America
Ans. (b)
116. Keshav Singh’s case is related to:
(a) Freedom of Press
(b) Right to life and person liberty
(c) Parliamentary privileges
(d) Imposition of President’s Rule
Ans. (c)
117. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, A promises B to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against B for robbery, and B promises to restore the value or the things taken. The agreement is:
(a) Valid
(b) Invalid
(c) Void
(d) Voidable
Ans. (c)
118. An agent, at the time making the contract does not disclosure the name and address of his principal but it comes known to the second party afterwards. In case of any default the second party may file a suit against:
(a) Principal
(b) Agent
(c) Either agent or principal or both
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
119. Under Indian Law of Contract “consensus ad idem” means:
(a) To agree on the same thing in the same sense
(b) No agreement can have more than one meaning
(c) To agree in the same way
(d) To agree on different things in the same sense
Ans. (a)
120. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, if the nature of liability in a contract is changed it is shown as:
(a) Rescission
(b) Renovation
(c) Alteration
(d) Novation
Ans. (d)
121. Which one of the following cases belongs to the principle of “pari delicto”:
(a) Barrett v. Irvine
(b) Banwari Lai v. Sukhdarshan Dayal
(c) Onkarmal v. Banwari Lai
(d) State of Madras v. Gannon Dunkerley & Co.
Ans. (c)
122. What is a reasonable time for performance of a contract:
(a) Is a question of fact
(b) Is a question of law
(c) Is a question of fact and law
(d) Is a question of prudence
Ans. (c)
123. ‘A contract of telephone becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard.’ In which case it has been held:
(a) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal
(b) Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Company
(c) Mohribibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh
(d) Satyabratta Ghosh v. Mugneeram
Ans. (a)
124. A lends rupees one lakh to B and B promises to repay it with interest @ 12% per annum after one year. The agreement also provides that if the amount is repaid within six months, the rate of interest will be 10%. The stipulation is:
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(d) illegal
Ans. (a)
125. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872 “an agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void”, which one of the following agreements, is not void:
(a) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings
(b) Agreement in restraint of trade
(c) Agreement under coercion
(d) Agreement in restraint of marriage
Ans. (c)
126. Where both of the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement is:
(a) Voidable
(b) Void
(c) illegal
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
127. An agreement which enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties, but not at the option of the other or others, is:
(a) Valid contract
(b) Voidable contract
(c) Void contract
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
128. In case of Breach of Contract, the principles for assessment of damages are given in:
(a) Hyde v. Wrench
(b) Hadlev v. Baxandale
(c) Scorf v. Jodine
(d) Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Com.
Ans. (b)
129. In which case, the Supreme Court has held that fundamental duties must be used as a tool to control state action drifting from Constitutional values:
(a) L.K. Koolwal v. State of Rajasthan
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Sachidanand Pandey v. State of West Bengal
(d) AIIMS Students Union v. AIIMS
Ans. (d)
130. ‘Carry forward’ rule was held to be ‘ultra vires’ in the case of:
(a) Devdasan v. Union of India
(b) B.N. Tiwari v. State of Mysore
(c) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
(d) Balaji v. State of Mysore
Ans. (a)
131. The Supreme Court of India has evolved curative petition under:
(a) Article 136 of the Constitution
(b) Article 143 of the Constitution
(c) Article 32 of the Constitution
(d) Article 142 of the Constitution
Ans. (d)
132. According to Supreme Court of India Jat community of various States is:
(a) Backward class under Article 16(4)
(b) Not backward class under Article 16(4)
(c) Mainly socially backward class
(d) Not political organised class
Ans. (b)
133. According to Supreme Court decision in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Constitution of India is:
(a) Federal
(b) Quasi-federal
(c) Co-operative Union
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
134. On the dissolution of Lok Sabha, a Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament and awaiting assent of President:
(a) Lapses
(b) Does not lapse
(c) Needs approval of new Lok Sabha
(d) Needs approval of speaker of new Lok Sabha
Ans. (b)
135. In Indra Swahney v. Union of India, case the Supreme Court has held that there:
(a) Can be reservations in promotions
(b) Cannot be reservations in promotions
(c) Can be reservations in promotion for Other Backward Castes (OBC)
(d) Can be reservation in promotion for women
Ans. (b)
136. Rajeev Kumar Gupta v. Union of India, (2016) deals with the reservations in State services for:
(a) Persons with disability
(b) Women
(c) Other Backward Classes
(d) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Ans. (a)
137. In which one of the following cases the discretionary powers of governor under Article 163 of the Constitution were held subjected to judicial review:
(a) Manabir Prasad Sharma v. Prafulla Chandra Ghosh
(b) Pratap Singh Raojirao Rane v. Governor of Goa
(c) Naban Rabia and Baman Felix v. Deputy Speaker
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
138. Under Indian Constitution “To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture” is a:
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Fundamental Duty
(c) Directive Principles of State Policies
(d) A Social morality
Ans. (b)
139. In which one of the following cases section 499 and section 500 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 have been recently declared Constitutional by the Supreme Court:
(a) Subramanium Swamy v. Union of India
(b) Rajkumar Gupta v. Union of India
(c) Janet Jaypaul v. SRM University
(d) Abhay Singh v. State of U.P.
Ans. (b)
140. “The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features.” This statement is of:
(a) Sir Ivor Jennings
(b) A.V. Dicey
(c) Prof. K.C. Wheare
(d) S.A. Desmith
Ans. (c)
141. “Disqualification on the ground of defection shall not apply in case of split in the political party.”
This provision has been deleted by:
(a) Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
(b) Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
(c) Constitutional (Ninety Fourth Amendment) Act, 2006
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
142. For removal of a judge of Supreme Court, the special majority resolution required to be passed in each House of Parliament is:
(a) Two-thirds of total number of members of the House
(b) Two-thirds of total membership of the House
(c) Two-thirds of members present and voting in the House and majority of the total membership of the House.
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
143. Parliament has power to make law on a matter in State List provided it is in:
(a) Public interest
(b) National interest
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
144. Under the Constitution of India Hindi in Devanagari Script is:
(a) National language of the Union of India
(b) Official language of the Union of India
(c) Mother language of the Union of India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
145. Which one of the following provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on Centre to ensure that government of the State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution:
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 355
(c) Article 353
(d) Article 358
Ans. (b)