Are you preparing for UP Judicial Service Civil Judge exam? Here are top 100 objective questions and answers on General Knowledge (GK) and Law for UP Judicial Service Civil Judge exam!
1. Which among the following is known as laughing gas:
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Nitric oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Ans. (a)
2. Who among the following represented India in the International Yoga Day Celebrations held in New York on 21st June, 2015:
(a) Uma Bharati
(b) Sumitra Mahajan
(c) Sushma Swaraj
(d) Vasundhara Raje
Ans. (c)
3. Consider the statements:
Assertion (A): The State Election Commission is appointed by the State Government. Reason (R): It has the responsibility of holding elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. (a)
4. National Botanical Research Institute is situated at:
(a) Lucknow
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dehradun
(d) Chennai
Ans. (a)
5. King Kharvela of Kalinga belonged to which dynasty:
(a) Chedi
(b) Kadamba
(c) Haryanka
(d) Kalinga
Ans. (a)
6. Which one of the following is the name of the Book written by Magasthnase:
(a) Deep Vansh
(b) Kapur Manjan
(c) Geography
(d) Indica
Ans. (d)
7. Who is regarded as the father of Indian pre-history:
(a) Cunnigham
(b) Bruce Froot
(c) Marshall
(d) William King
Ans. (b)
8. Who among the following called himself ‘The Parrot of India’:
(a) Malik Muhammad Jaisi
(b) Raskhan
(c) Amir Khusrau
(d) Amir Hasan
Ans. (c)
9. Who among the following built the ‘Qutub Minar’:
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Firozshah Tughlaq
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
10. At which of the following places Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the tricolour in 1930:
(a) Allahabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Lahore
(d) Lucknow
Ans. (c)
11. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazara is related to:
(a) Doctrine of election
(b) Doctrine of part performance
(c) Transfer by unauthorised person
(d) Ostensible owner
Ans. (d)
12. How much salary of a person can be attached in execution of a decree for maintenance:
(a) First one thousand rupees and 1/3 of the remainder.
(b) First one thousand rupees and 2/3 of the remainder.
(c) 2/3 of the salary.
(d) 1/3 of the salary.
Ans. (c)
13. In which one of the following cases it was held that partition is not a transfer of property:
(a) V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar, AIR 1986 SC 432
(b) Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi, AIR 2009 NOC 3009.
(c) Abdul Jabbar v. Venkata Shashtri, AIR 1969 SC 1147
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
14. Identification parade can be held by:
(a) Police Officer only
(b) Magistrate only
(c) Public Servant only
(d) Any person
Ans. (d)
15. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that evidence may be given of facts in issue and relevant facts:
(a) Section 3
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 5
(d) Section 60
Ans. (c)
16. “Character as affecting damages’ has been discussed in which one of the following sections:
(a) Section 55 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b) Section 56 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(c) Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(d) Section 58 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans. (a)
17. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to presumption as to electronic agreement:
(a) Section 81A
(b) Section 85C
(c) Section 88A
(d) Section 85A
Ans. (d)
18. By which one of the following amendments Section 53A has been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(a) Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008.
(b) Indian Evidence (Amendments) Act, 2002.
(c) Criminal Law (Amendments) Act, 2005.
(d) Criminal Law (Amendments) Act, 2013.
Ans. (d)
19. Which one of the following dates of enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct:
(a) 15th March, 1872
(b) 1st September, 1872
(c) 1st July, 1872
(d) 1st February, 1872
Ans. (b)
20. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986:
(a) Section 111 A
(b) Section 113A
(c) Section 113B
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
21. Which one of the following does not fall within the definition of the term Court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(a) All Judges
(b) All Magistrates
(c) All Consumer Forums
(d) All persons legally authorised to take evidence
Ans. (c)
22. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction has been discussed in:
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 11
Ans. (a)
23. The Law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is:
(a) Substantive Law
(b) Procedural Law
(c) Substantive and Procedural Law
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
24. In which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provision as to refresh memory has been given:
(a) Section 141
(b) Section 149
(c) Section 159
(d) Section 158
Ans. (c)
25. Which one of the following is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for relevancy:
(a) Intention
(b) Motive
(c) Preparation
(d) Conduct
Ans. (a)
26. “The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty”, says:
(a) Ihering
(b) Ehrlich
(c) Roscoe Pound
(d) Duguit
Ans. (d)
27. Point out best response:
According to Austin, law has the following attributes:
(a) Command, sovereign and enforceability
(b) Command, sovereign and sanction
(c) Command, sovereign and legal remedy
(d) Command, sovereign and obedience by subject
Ans. (b)
28. Which one of the following jurists belongs to ancient theories of natural law:
(a) Acquinas
(b) Grotius
(c) Kohler
(d) Socrates
Ans. (d)
29. Which one of the following is not an essential element of custom:
(a) Antiquity
(b) Certainty
(c) Peaceful enjoyment
(d) Inconsistency
Ans. (d)
30. Give correct response:
(a) The obiter dictum has binding force
(b) Ratio decidendi has binding force.
(c) Ratio decidendi and obiter dictum both have binding force.
(d) Neither ratio decidendi nor obiter dictum has binding force.
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following is not a safeguard against delegated legislation:
(a) Parliamentary control
(b) Judicial control
(c) publication
(d) Public control
Ans. (d)
32. Who among the following Astronomers was a native of Avanti:
(a) Aryabhata
(b) Brahmagupta
(c) Bhaskaracharya II
(d) Varahamihira
Ans. (d)
33. Who among the following was ruling the Chola country at the time of Mahmud Ghazni’s expedition of Gujarat:
(a) Uttama Chola
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendra I
(d) Kulottunga
Ans. (c)
34. Who was the only Sultan of Delhi, who wrote his autobiographical account:
(a) Mubarak Shah Khalji
(b) Feroz Shah
(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud
(d) Sikandar Lodi
Ans. (b)
35. On the ruins of which old Hindu kingdom the Muslim kingdom of Golcunda grew up:
(a) Devagiri
(b) Dwarasamudra
(c) Kanchi
(d) Warangal
Ans. (d)
36. Which one of the following is not biodegradable:
(a) Woollen mat
(b) Silver foil
(c) Leather bag
(d) Jute basket
Ans. (b)
37. Name the world famous space scientist who despite being paralysed for nearly three decades took a zero-gravity flight in 2007:
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Jerry Shay
(c) Abdus Salem
(d) Mohamed Elbaradel
Ans. (a)
38. ‘All India Harijan Sangh’ was founded in 1932 by:
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) K. Rangarao
Ans. (c)
39. Depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere enhances the risk of:
(a) Global warming
(b) Acid rain
(c) Skin cancer
(d) Brain damage
Ans. (c)
40. Which bio-metre indices are used in making AADHAR card of a person:
(a) Face and finger-prints
(b) Eye & ear
(c) Pupil and finger prints
(d) Face and pupil
Ans. (c)
41. Which gas is used as a coolant in cold storages:
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Ammonia
(d) Chlorofluorocarbon
Ans. (c)
42. The 1st Satellite of India sent into space was:
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Rohini
(c) Bhaskar
(d) Apple
Ans. (a)
43. The remote control of a television uses:
(a) Infra-red rays
(b) Ultra-violet rays
(c) Visible rays
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
44. Haripura Session (1938) of Indian National Congress was presided over by:
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Sarat Chandra Bose
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (a)
45. In which of the following Sessions of Muslim League, had M.A. Jinnah established Two Nations Theory:
(a) Amritsar Session, 1919
(b) Allahabad Session, 1930
(c) Lucknow Session, 1937
(d) Lahore Session, 1940
Ans. (d)
46. In December 2011, the meeting of Commerce Ministers of World Trade Organisation was held in:
(a) Geneva
(b) London
(c) Paris
(d) Tokyo
Ans. (a)
47. Garuda 2010 is a military exercise involving the air forces of:
(a) India and Russia
(b) India and USA
(c) India and Japan
(d) India and France
Ans. (d)
48. These days American Army is testing ‘Pilotless Helicopter” for to & for transportation of military goods in Afghanistan. Which is this very important Helicopter:
(a) K. Max Helicopter
(b) Laser Helicopter
(c) T. Max Helicopter
(d) Rotor Helicopter
Ans. (a)
49. ‘Kalinga Award’ is given by UNESCO for contribution in the field of:
(a) Literature
(b) Sports
(c) Politics
(d) Science
Ans. (d)
50. In December 2011 Annual Defence Dialogue was held between India and:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) Russia
Ans. (b)
51. Australia 1st Woman Prime Minister Julia Gillard belongs to:
(a) Liberal Party of Australia
(b) National Party of Australia
(c) Australian Labour Party
(d) Australian Greens
Ans. (c)
52. Who amongst the following has won the prestigious ‘Man Booker International Award’ for the year 2011:
(a) Alice Munro
(b) Chinua Achele
(c) Ismail Kadere
(d) Philip Roth
Ans. (d)
53. Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts has three Regional Centres in India. From the following, find out which one of the cities does not have a Regional Centre:
(a) Bangaluru
(b) Udaipur
(c) Varanasi
(d) Guwahati
Ans. (b)
54. The campaign for widow-remarriage in Maharashtra was led by:
(a) Vishnu Parasuram Pandit
(b) B.M. Malabari
(c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Ans. (a)
55. A contract of life-insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event, falls under the category of:
(a) Contingent Contract
(b) Contract of Indemnity
(c) Contract of Guarantee
(d) Special Contract.
Ans. (a)
56. Which of the following statements regarding consideration is not correct:
(a) It must be given at the desire of the promisor
(b) It may be past also
(c) It need not be adequate to the promise
(d) Stranger to it cannot sue.
Ans. (c)
57. Which one of the following is not an organ of the United Nations:
(a) Economic and Social Council
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) Trusteeship Council
(d) World Health Organization.
Ans. (d)
58. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question:
(a) Any member of United Nations
(b) The highest Court of Justice of any Nation
(c) The General Assembly of the United Nations
(d) Any Permanent Member of the Security Council.
Ans. (c)
59. Which of the following State has rejoined UNESCO on October 01, 2003 after 19 years absence:
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Sweden
(d) France.
Ans. (a)
60. Which of the following is not a Specialised Agency of the United Nations:
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(c) U.N. Human Rights Commission
(d) International Labour Organisation.
Ans. (c)
61. The Nobel Prize in Physics, 2006 has been awarded to:
(a) Andrew Z. Fire and Craig C. Mello
(b) Roy J. Glauber and John L. Hall
(c) John C Mather and George F Smoot
(d) Steven Boone and Curtis Cooper.
Ans. (c)
62. A man whose blood group is not known meets with an accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the following groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion:
(a) O, Rh”
(b) O, Rh+
(c) AB, Rh”
(d) AB, Rh+
Ans. (a)
63. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A) The situation in Bangladesh before the elections is turning violent.
Reason (R) The two major rival political parties are pressurizing the caretaker Government.
In the context of a love, which one of the following is correct-
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. (b)
64. ‘Lakshya’ which was recently inducted into the Indian Defence System is a:
(a) Surface to air missile
(b) Missile firing Submarine
(c) Multi-barrel rocket system
(d) Pilot-less target aircraft.
Ans. (d)
65. Which one of the following Satellites was launched by ISRO successfully on 22nd December, 2005:
(a) INSAT-4A
(b) INSAT-4B
(c) INSAT-2A
(d) INSAT-2B.
Ans. (a)
66. The Supreme Court recently ruled that all marriages irrespective of their religion be compulsorily registered. Which one of the following groups of four States each already had marriage registration mandatory:
(a) Assam, Bihar, Gujarat and Karnataka
(b) Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa and Meghalaya
(c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Assam
(d) Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
Ans. (d)
67. Under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme the concerned rural households are to be given job cards by:
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Gram Vikas Adhikari
(c) Block Development Officer
(d) Kshettra Panchayat.
Ans. (a)
68. The objectives of SAARC include:
1. Acceleration of economic growth in the region
2. Promotion of collective self-reliance
3. Promotion of mutual assistance in various fields
4. Encouragement of disarmament
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All the four.
Ans. (b)
69. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A) India is one of the greatest Sea Powers of the World Reason (R) The Indian Ocean washes its shores on the three sides.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct-
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. (d)
70. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The State Election Commission is a statutory authority Reason (R): It enjoys powers similar to that of the Election Commission of India .
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct-
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. (c)
71. Which of the following is NOT the right of a child:
(a) The Child’s inherent rights of life
(b) The Child’s right to own property
(c) The right of a child to education
(d) The right of a child to social security.
Ans. (b)
72. Which one of the following group of cities in U.P. is correctly placed as having a Mayor system:
(a) Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, Mainpuri
(b) Lucknow, Aligarh, Moradabad, Meerut
(c) Varanasi, Agra, Mathura, Moradabad
(d) Agra, Bareilly, Meerut, Etawah
Ans. (b)
73. Who was the Chairman of “National Commission to review the working of the Constitution”:
(a) Hon’ble Justice J.S. Verma
(b) Hon’ble Justice O.P. Chinappa Reddy
(c) Hon’ble Justice R.S. Sarkaria
(d) Hon’ble Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah.
Ans. (d)
74. Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the President:
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
Ans. (b)
75. Disputes between States in India come to the Supreme Court under:
(a) Appellate jurisdiction
(b) Original jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) Review jurisdiction.
Ans. (b)
76. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it is in the:
(a) National interest
(b) Interest of the minority
(c) Interest of the public
(d) Interest of the State concerned.
Ans. (a)
77. The Constitutional Authority vested with power of declaring castes or Tribes as Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the:
(a) Parliament
(b) Chairman SC/ST Commission
(c) President of India
(d) Home Minister.
Ans. (c)
78. What is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem:
(a) Sing and stand respectfully
(b) Stand respectfully
(c) Sing the same
(d) To bow.
Ans. (b)
79. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion:
(a) Public order
(b) Social justice
(c) Health
(d) Morality.
Ans. (b)
80. The proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by:
(a) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue till the reconstitution of New Lok Sabha which must approve it within thirty days of its first sitting
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Lok Sabha in the next session after six months
(d) New Lok Sabha within six months of its Constitution.
Ans. (a)
81. Money Bill can be introduced:
(a) In either House of Parliament
(b) Only in Lok Sabha
(c) Only in Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
82. Which is not a qualification to become a High Court Judge:
(a) He should be a citizen of India
(b) He has at least ten years of experience as an advocate of High Court
(c) He has completed the age of 35 years
(d) He has, for at least ten years, held a judicial office in India.
Ans. (c)
83. The Lahore Conspiracy Case resulted in hanging of:
I. Rama Prasad Bismil II. Bhagat Singh
III. Sukhdev
IV. Rajguru
Choose your answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II, III and IV.
Ans. (d)
84. The Novel ‘Anand Math’ was written by:
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(b) Dinbandhu Mitra
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Sharat Chandra.
Ans. (a)
85. ‘Depressed Classes League’ was established by:
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Babu Jagjiwan Ram
(c) N.S. Kajorlkar
(d) Mahatma Jotiba Phule.
Ans. (a)
86. ‘Sanchi Stupa’ was built by:
(a) Samudra Gupta
(b) Ashoka
(c) Krishana Deo Raya
(d) Harsha.
Ans. (b)
87. Which of the following leading personalities were associated with the formation of the ‘Swaraj Party’:
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru.
Ans. (d)
88. In the history of India among the following who is famous for the policy of ‘market control’:
(a) Balban
(b) Akbar
(c) Sher Shah
(d) Alauddin Khilji.
Ans. (d)
89. The Battle of ‘Plassey’ was fought between:
(a) The English and the French
(b) The English and the Nawab of Bengal
(c) The English and the Nawab of Avadh
(d) The English and the Marathas.
Ans. (b)
90. The Social Reformer of the 19th Century who vigorously favoured the widow remarriage was:
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
(c) Devendra Nath Tagore
(d) Swami Vivekanand
Ans. (b)
91. Which of the following dynasties is credited to issue of gold coin in India for the first time:
(a) The Mauryas
(b) The Guptas
(c) The Kushanas
(d) The Satavahanas.
Ans. (c)
92. The Valley of flower lies in the District of:
(a) Chamoli
(b) Uttar Kashi
(c) Dehradun
(d) Nainital.
Ans. (a)
93. ‘A’, a police officer, tortures ‘B’ in order to induce ‘B’ to confess that he committed a crime. Under which Section of the I.P.C., the police officer is guilty of an offence:
(a) Section 325
(b) Section 326
(c) Section 328
(d) Section 330.
Ans. (d)
94. ‘A’ picked up a revolver and believing it to be loaded, pulled the trigger with the criminal intention of shooting ‘B’ dead. Fortunately the revolver was not loaded and ‘B’ escaped unhurt. ‘A’ has committed the offence of:
(a) Murder
(b) Attempt to murder
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) ‘A’ has committed no offence.
Ans. (b)
95. Which one of the following combinations are not correctly matched:
1. Mehboob Shah v. Common Object Emperor
2. State of Maharashtra v. Mens Rea M.H. George
3. Director Public Defence of Prosecutor v. Beard Insanity
4. P. Rathinam v. Union Dowry Death of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (1), (2) and (4)
(b) (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (3) and (4)
(d) (1), (2) and (4).
Ans. (c)
96. Which of the following is the correct meaning of the “privity of contract” principle:
(a) Parties must maintain the privity of contract
(b) Main objective of the contract must be maintained
(c) Only parties to the contract may sue on it
(d) Only the parties know in which circumstances the contract was made.
Ans. (c)
97. Assertion (A) – Right to education is a Fundamental Right
Reason (R) – Our Constitution has no provision for education before making right to education as Fundamental Right.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans. (c)
98. The words “Consensus ad item” means:
(a) No agreement can have more than one meaning
(b) To agree in the same way
(c) To agree on the same thing in the same sense
(d) To agree for different objects in the same sense.
Ans. (c)
99. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud:
(a) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(b) Entire concealment of a fact
(c) A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
(d) A promise made without intention of performing it.
Ans. (c)
100. Who was the great force behind the foundation of the first Indian Women’s University in Bombay in 1906:
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) D.K. Karve
(c) S.S. Bangali
(d) V.M. Malabari
Ans. (b)