Quiz questions and answers on the constitution of India for school, college and law students!
1. The Constitution guarantees the following privileges to the President of India:
(a) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President in any Court during his term of office
(b) No process for the arrest or impeachment of the President shall be issued from any court during his term of office
(c) The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in exercise of those powers and duties
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
2. The President of India has power to:
(a) Prorogue the Houses or either House
(b) Dissolve the Houses or either House
(c) Summon each House of Parliament.
(d) Dissolve the Lok Sabha only.
Ans. (d)
3. The President of India has no power to remove:
(a) by an order the Chairman or any other member of UPSC only after the report from Supreme Court
(b) by an order the Chairman or other members of State Public Service Commission only after the report from Supreme Court
(c) Advocate-General of a State
(d) A Judge of Supreme Court in accordance with the procedure prescribed.
Ans. (c)
4. Treaty making power is conferred upon:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) The President of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) President of India but is subject to ratification by the Parliament.
Ans. (d)
5. Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred:
(a) only in the House of People
(b) only in Council of States
(c) only in joint session of the Parliament
(d) by either House of Parliament.
Ans. (d)
6. A person who holds or who has held office as President shall:
(a) not be eligible for re-election
(b) be eligible for re-election as President
(c) be eligible for re-election as President after the gap of one term.
(d) be eligible for re-election as President after 10 years of vacating the office
Ans. (b)
7. Give correct response to:
(a) The President shall be bound by the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) The President shall be bound by the advice given by the Council of Ministers
(c) The President shall act on the advice of the Prime Minister who shall tender such advice in consultation with his cabinet
(d) The President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers and he may return such advice for reconsideration.
Ans. (d)
8. The President of India is vested with Ordinance making power by Article 126. He exercises this power:
(a) when Lok Sabha is not in session and circumstances exist which render it necessary for the President to take immediate action
(b) when Council of States is not in session and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action
(c) when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and President is satisfied that circumstances exist which made it necessary for him to take the immediate action
(d) in all the above circumstances.
Ans. (c)
9. When charge against the President is preferred by either House of Parliament and is being investigated by other House:
(a) the President has a right to appear and to be represented at such investigation
(b) the President has no right to appear and to be represented at such investigation
(c) the President has a right of representation but he does not have a right of personal hearing
(d) the President has a right to appear and to be represented either personally or through a legal practitioner.
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following statements is incorrect:
(a) The Governor can refuse to assent to a Bill
(b) The Governor can reserve the bill for the assent of the President
(c) The Governor may refuse to invite a leader of the party in Vidhan Sabha who does not command the majority in the House
(d) The Governor may dismiss the speaker of the Vidhan Sabha and the Chairman of Vidhan Parishad.
Ans. (d)
11. Give response to:
(a) No court has power to compel the Governor to exercise or not to exercise any power or to perform or not to perform any duty
(b) The Governor cannot be prosecuted in a civil and criminal court for any act of omission or commission during the period he holds office
(c) both above statements are correct
(d) statement (a) is correct while (b) is not.
Ans. (c)
12. Give correct response to:
(a) The President has power to remove the Prime Minister but not any of his ministers unless so advised by the Prime Minister
(b) The President has power neither to remove the Prime Minister nor any of his ministers unless the Prime Minister loses the support of majority in Lok Sabha and tenders his resignation
(c) The President can remove Prime Minister the moment he loses his majority in the Lok Sabha
(d) The President has a power to remove any of the ministers at his pleasure.
Ans. (b)
13. The Vice President is elected:
(a) on the basis of adult franchise by the People of India
(b) by an electoral college consisting of all the members of Rajya Sabha by secret ballot
(c) by an electoral college of all the members of both the Houses of Parliament
(d) by electoral college consisting of all the members of both the Houses of Parliament in accordance with proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and by secret ballot.
Ans. (d)
14. Civil proceedings against the President for any act done or purported to be done by him in his personal capacity before he entered in the office of President:
(a) may be filed in any civil court by a suit
(b) may be filed in the High Court
(c) can be filed only in Supreme Court
(d) can be filed only after the expiration of two months next after notice in writing has been delivered to the President.
Ans. (d)
15. Governor is mere titular head of the State. He has some discretionary powers in the exercise of which he need not take advice given to him by Council of Minister. These matters are:
(a) reservation of any bill for the consent of the President
(b) appointment of the Chairman of the Upper House
(c) special address of the Governor after general election
(d) appointment of the Advocate-General.
Ans. (a)
16. The Governor is free to resign from his office by giving resignation, but he can be removed from the office:
(a) by the President at his pleasure
(b) by impeachment in Parliament
(c) on the advice of Chief Minister
(d) on the majority passed by two-third majority in Vidhan Sabha.
Ans. (a)
17. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the conditions of Governor’s office as given in Article 158:
(a) the Governor shall not hold any office of profit
(b) the Governor must be a member of either House of Parliament or State Legislature
(c) the emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his tenure in the office
(d) the Governor shall be eligible to draw salary from all the States as full.
Ans. (d)
18. The clemency to capital punishment is granted by:
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) The Parliament.
Ans. (a)
19. The powers of the President are:
(a) beyond the Constitution
(b) in accordance with the Constitution
(c) in accordance with the Parliament only.
(d) Supra-Constitutional.
Ans. (b)
20. Where the disputes regarding the election of President and Vice President of India filed and settled:
(a) in the Supreme Court
(b) in the Election Commission
(c) in the Parliament
(d) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts.
Ans. (a)
21. If President wants to tender his resignation before expiry of his normal term he has to address the same to:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President.
Ans. (d)
22. In the event of the death or resignation of President, Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President:
(a) for rest of the term
(b) for a maximum period of one year
(c) for maximum period of four months
(d) for a maximum period of six months.
Ans. (d)
23. In case the Vice President is not available to discharge the duties of the office of President, which official discharges these duties:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chairman of UPSC.
Ans. (c)
24. After a Bill has been passed by Parliament and sent to the President for his consideration:
(a) he can refuse to sign it
(b) he has to sign it
(c) he can change certain clauses of the bill
(d) he can send it back for reconsideration.
Ans. (d)
25. President has no say in the appointment of:
(a) Judges of the Supreme Court
(b) Judges of the High Court
(c) District and Sessions Judges
(d) Attorney General of India.
Ans. (c)
26. If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his term, he may address his resignation to:
(a) Chief Minister of the State
(b) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister.
Ans. (c)
27. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to:
(a) Consolidated Fund of the State
(b) Consolidated Fund of India
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) (a) & (b) in equal proportion.
Ans. (a)
28. Generally, the Governor belongs to:
(a) the same State
(b) the neighbouring State
(c) some other State
(d) Indian Administrative Service.
Ans. (c)
29. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by:
(a) President
(b) Chief Minister
(c) State Legislature
(d) none of above.
Ans. (d)
30. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India:
(a) The Parliament of India
(b) The Governor of a State
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The President of India.
Ans. (d)
31. In the event of occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice- President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till a new President is elected:
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Senior-most Governor.
Ans. (c)
32. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President:
(a) Chairman of the UPSC
(b) Attorney-General of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Ans. (c)
33. When proclamation of emergency is issued by the President under Article 352 of the Constitution of India:
(a) Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended
(b) the freedom under Article 19 are automatically suspended and other Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President.
(c) the freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended and other Fundamental Rights, except those under Articles 20 and 21, can be suspended by an order of the President
(d) only freedoms under Article 19 are suspended and other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended.
34. Which one of the following statements is not correct:
(a) The Governor can issue ordinances when the Legislative Assembly is not in session or only when two Houses are not in session
(b) The Governor can at his discretion issue the Ordinances whether the Assembly is in session or not
(c) The Governor must be satisfied that such circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action
(d) The Governor’s Ordinance shall have the same force and effect as an Act of the Legislature.
Ans. (b)
35. When the President of India is satisfied that the financial credit of Government of India is threatened he may:
(a) direct reduction in number of members in the Finance Commission
(b) proclaim financial emergency
(c) impose President’s Rule in any State
(d) direct Parliament to pass special Financial Bill.
Ans. (b)
36. Article 361 of the Constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that, he shall:
(a) not participate in parliamentary proceedings
(b) only be answerable to the Chief Justice of India
(c) address both the Houses of Parliament at the time of joint session
(d) not be answerable to any court during the term of his office.
Ans. (d)
37. When the Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President he is required to consult:
(a) the Council of Ministers and all judges of the Supreme Court
(b) the Prime Minister, the law Minister and the Attorney-General of India
(c) such of the Ministers of the Cabinet and the Prime Minister, as he deems necessary
(d) such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts as he deems necessary.
Ans. (d)
38. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor- General (CAG):
(a) Article 78
(b) Article 148
(c) Article 178
(d) Article 238.
Ans. (b)
39. The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) is appointed by …….. :
(a) The President
(b) The Council of Ministers
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (a)
40. Which one of the following statements is ‘TRUE’, where the Governor resigns in praesenti without indicating the date from which his resignation is to take place:
(a) He may continue to hold the office at his will
(b) The Government cannot make an alternative arrangement in view of Article 153
(c) Resignation takes effect from the date of communication
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true:
(a) In a Cabinet form of Government, neither the President nor the Government exercises the executive functions individually or personally
(b) Executive action taken in the name of the Governor is the executive action of the State
(c) The Governor cannot be held personally answerable for any portion of the address to the joint session
(d) The Governor is bound to exercise all his powers and functions on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers.
Ans. (d)
42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true regarding ‘Inter-State Council’:
(a) It is established under Article 263 of the Constitution
(b) Decision on all questions are required to be taken in consensus
(c) Decision of the Chairman is bound by the consensus
(d) It is required to meet at least thrice every year.
Ans. (c)
43. Consider the following statements and decide which one of them is not true regarding Attorney-General of India:
(a) Attorney-General of India is appointed by the President
(b) His qualification should be similar to a Judge of the High Court
(c) He has right to audience in all courts in India
(d) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Ans. (b)
44. The term of Lok Sabha is:
(a) five years unless it is dissolved
(b) four years from the date of its first session
(c) five years from the date of oath taken by the members
(d) it is a permanent body of cyclic filing of MPs.
Ans. (a)
45. Members of Lok Sabha are elected by the way of:
(a) people’s representation
(b) by the State Legislature
(c) nominations
(d) by electoral college.
Ans. (a)
46. Rajya Sabha has a term of:
(a) six years
(b) it is a permanent body in which 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd year
(c) five years from the date of oath taken by the members
(d) ten years.
Ans. (b)
47. Total strength of Council of States consists of:
(a) 300 members representing States and Union Territories
(b) 260 members
(c) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
(d) 305 members.
Ans. (c)
48. Total strength of Lok Sabha members is:
(a) 542
(b) 525 from the State and 20 from Union Territories
(c) 525 from the States and 20 from Union Territories and 2 nominated by President from Union Territory
(d) 555.
Ans. (c)
49. Representation of House of People is based on:
(a) area of the State
(b) population
(c) community
(d) literacy rate.
Ans. (b)
50. A Member of Parliament can claim immunity:
(a) both from civil as well as criminal cases
(b) from civil cases only
(c) from criminal cases only
(d) cannot claim immunity either from civil or from criminal cases.
Ans. (a)
51. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker is:
(a) removed from the office immediately
(b) remains as Speaker until the first meeting of the House of People after the dissolution
(c) he has to submit his resignation to the President of India within 24 hours
(d) he can continue as speaker for the period of 30 days only.
Ans. (b)
52. Council of Ministers can be suspended during session:
(a) by Prime Minister of India
(b) by Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) by Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
53. The Council of Ministers are selected by the:
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Vice President.
Ans. (b)
54. Give correct response to:
(a) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha so that the censure of one will become the censure of all
(b) they are individually responsible for the acts done by them
(c) it is the responsibility of the leader of the House
(d) Prime Minister and Home Minister are only responsible.
Ans. (a)
55. The oath of the office is administered to the Council of Ministers by:
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Ans. (a)
55. According to Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. If the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest that parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the state list specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
II. A resolution passed shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein.
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
56. If the Parliament and any of the State legislatures make law on a same subject of the concurrent list, the law made by _____ shall prevail.
A. State legislature
B. Parliament
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Law shall become void
Ans. B
57. A state law may be ‘repugnant’ in which of the following ways?
A. When there is direct conflict between the two provisions
B. Though there may not be any direct conflict between the Union and the state legislation, where it is evident that the Union Parliament intended its legislation to be a complete and exhaustive code relating to the Subject, it shall be taken that the union law has replaced state legislation relating to the subject
C. None of them
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
58. Which of the following statements regarding control of the Union over states in certain cases is/are found to be correct?
I. The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of direction to a state as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance.
II. The executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of direction to a state as to the measures to be taken for the protection of the railway within the state.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
59. The______ may with the consent of Indian Government, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government executive power of the state extends.
A. President
B. Governor
C. Chief Minister
D. Council of Minister
Ans. B
60. Regarding Article 262 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley.
II. Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to.
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
61. Which of the following can be the duty/duties of an Inter- State Council?
A. Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between states
B. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the states, or the Union and one or more of the states, have a common interest
C. Making recommendations upon any such subject and in particular, recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject
D. All of them
Ans. D
62. No moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India or the consolidated Fund of a State shall be appropriated except ______.
A. In accordance with law
B. Recommended by Parliament
C. Authorised by Prime Minister
D. None of them
Ans. A
63. Taxes on services shall be levied by the:
A. Government of India
B. President
C. Lok Sabha
D. Rajya Sabha
Ans. A
64. In Articles 274 of the Indian constitution the expression ‘tax or duty in which States are interested’ means:
A. A tax or duty on the whole or part of the net proceeds whereof are assigned to any state
B. A tax or duty by reference to the net proceeds whereof sums are for the time being payable out of the consolidated fund of India to any state
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
65. The conditions which must be satisfied before Articles 277 of the Indian Constitution may be applied are:
A. That there is a tax which was lawfully levied by a local authority for the purposes of a local area at the commencement of the Constitution
B. That the identity of the tax is not altered
C. That the incidence of the tax is not altered
D. All of them
Ans. D
66. It shall be the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the President as to _______
I. The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective share of such proceeds.
II. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
67. The custody of the consolidated fund of a state shall be regulated by rules made by the ______.
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Governor
D. Prime Minister
Ans. C
68. No law of a State shall impose, or authorise the imposition of a tax on the sale or purchase of goods where such sale or purchase takes place_______________
A. Outside the state
B. In the course of the import of the goods into, or export of the goods out of the territory of India
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
69. The executive power of the Union extends to borrowing upon the security of the _______
A. Contingency Fund of India
B. Treasury
C. Commercial Bill
D. Consolidated Fund of India
Ans. D
70. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It is an incident of sovereignty according to which all property, movable or immovable, vests in the Government, in the absence of an heir or successor, known as Escheat.
II. When a claim of escheat is put forward by the Government, the onus lies heavily upon the Government to prove the absence of any heir of the deceased anywhere in the world.
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
71. All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union shall be expressed to be made by the _______
A. Governor
B. President
C. Prime Minster
D. Chief Justice
Ans. B
72. Trade and commerce throughout the territory of India shall be _______
A. Biased
B. Taxable
C. Free
D. All of them
Ans. C
73. Notwithstanding anything in Article 301 or Article 303 of the Indian Constitution, the State legislature may be law:
I. Impose on goods imported from other states or the Union Territories any tax to which similar goods manufactured or produced in that state are subject, so, however as not to discriminate between goods so imported and goods so manufactured or produced.
II. Impose such reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse with or within that state as may be required in the public interest.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
74. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Recruitment is a comprehensive term and includes any method provided for inducting a person in public service.
II. Appointment, selection, promotion, deputation are all well-known methods of recruitment.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
75. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
A. Subordinate refers to subordinate in rank and not in respect of function
B. Any rule which seeks to vest the power of dismissal in an authority subordinate in rank to the appointing authority shall be void
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
76. Parliament may provide law for the creation of one or more all India services on the resolution declared by the:
A. Lok Sabha (House of People)
B. Council of State
C. President
D. Prime Minister
Ans. B
77. The Chairman or other members of Union Public service commission are appointed by the:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Council of Minister
D. Chief justice
Ans. A
78. Who among the following may by regulation determine the number of members of the commission and their condition of service?
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Advocate General
D. Chief Justice
Ans. B
79. Which among the followings has the power to extend functions of State Public Service Commission?
A. Governor
B. State Legislative
C. Chief Minister
D. Advocate General
Ans. B
80. The annual report of the Union Public Service Commission is to be submitted to the ______.
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Council of Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans. B
81. The High Court, under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution, can interfere with an order of the Election Commission:
A. Where it is contrary to the law enacted under Article 327
B. If the order is aberrancy
C. If it is without or in excess of the commission’s jurisdiction.
D. All of them
Ans. D
82. Which among the following has the power to make provisions with respect to election to legislatives?
A. Parliament
B. President
C. State Legislative
D. Supreme Court
Ans. A
83. Seats shall be reserved in the House of the people for ______.
A. The Scheduled Castes
B. The Scheduled Tribes
C. The Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam
D. All of them
Ans. D
84. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The Constitution for the seats reserved for any autonomous district of Assam shall not comprise any area outside the district.
II. No person who is not a member of a scheduled Tribe of an autonomous district of the state of Assam shall be eligible for election to the Legislative Assembly of the state from any constituency of that district.
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
85. The provisions of the Constitution relating to the reservation of seats for the S.C.s’ and the S.T’s in House of the people and State Legislative Assembly and the representation of the Anglo-Indian community shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of________ from the commencement of the Constitution
A. 40 years
B. 50 years
C. 60 years
D. 65 years
Ans. C
86. Which of the following can be termed as the duty of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes?
A. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes
B. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes
C. To participate and advice on the planning process of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes
D. All of them
Ans. D
87. The _____ may by order appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India.
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Council of Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans. A
88. Which of the following shall be the duty of the commission constituted to make recommendation to the President?
A. The progressive use of the Hindi language for the official purposes of the union
B. Restriction on the use of the English language for all or any of the official purposes of the union
C. The form of numerals to be used for any one or more specified purposes of the union
D. All of them
Ans. D
89. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in language.
A. Hindi
B. English
C. Languages of the Bill/case
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. B
90. It shall be the duty of the __________ to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
A. State
B. Union
C. President
D. Prime Minister
Ans. B
91. A Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution may be issued by the President on which of the following grounds?
A. War
B. External aggression
C. Armed Rebellion
D. All of them
Ans. D
92. It shall be the duty of the_______ to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provision of the Constitution.
A. President
B. Union
C. Prime Minister
D. Defence Minister
Ans. B
93. Which of the following can be the proper grounds for the use of extra ordinary power by the President under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution?
A. Where a ministry having resigned the Governor finds it impossible to form an alternative Government
B. Where, after a general election, no party is able to secure a working majority in the legislative Assembly
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
94. Where by a proclamation issued under Article 356(i) of the Indian Constitution it has been declared that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercised by or under the authority of ______.
A. Governor
B. Parliament
C. President
D. Vidhan Sabha
Ans. B
95. Where a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the______ may be order declare the suspension of the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III (except Articles 20 and 21) of the Indian Constitution.
A. Governor
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Council of Ministers
Ans. C
96. Who among the following shall be the competent authority to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union?
A. Chief Justice of India
B. President
C. Comptroller and Auditor General
D. Prime Minister
Ans. B
97. Which of the following statements regarding application of Article 361A (of the Indian Constitution Protection of Publication of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature) is are correct?
A. The report must be a report of the proceedings of a House of the Union or a State Legislature
B. It must be a report as distinguished from an article or comment
C. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
D. All of them
Ans. D
98. Which of the following definitions is/are correct?
I. “Clause” means a clause of the article in which the expression occurs.
II. “Debt” includes any liability in respect of any obligation to repay capital sums by way of annuities and liability under any guarantee.
III. “Existing Laws” means any law ordinance, order, bye-law rule or regulation passed or made before the commencement of this Constitution.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A
99. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution are open to alteration by the Union Parliament by a simple majority?
A. Creation of now states or reconstitution of existing states
B. Creation or abolition of upper chambers in the state
C. Administration of scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
D. All of them
Ans. D
100. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The provision of Articles 238 of the Indian Constitution shall not apply in relation to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
II. Other provisions of this Constitution shall apply in relation to the State of Jammu and Kashmir subject to such a exceptions and modification as the President may be order specify
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C