Mock test questions and answers on the constitution of India for UPSC, civil services, IAS and Indian judicial examinations!
1. In Article 45, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of ______ years:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 14.
Ans. (a)
2. Provision for the protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life has been provided in:
(a) Article 47
(b) Article 48
(c) Article 48A
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
3. The President of India is elected:
(a) by way of people representation
(b) by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and by the representatives of Central and State Legislature
(c) directed by the people
(d) the Prime Minister appoints him.
Ans. (b)
4. The term of President expires:
(a) five years from the date of entering to the office
(b) four years from the date of his entering to the office
(c) five years from the date of declaring the results
(d) till the life time.
Ans. (a)
5. The Legal power or position of the President of India is:
(a) The same as in the English Constitution
(b) like the President of America
(c) like the Administrator of Sikkim
(d) like that of Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
Ans. (a)
6. The Supreme Commander of Armed Forces is:
(a) the President of India
(b) the Prime Minister of India
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Chief of Army Staff.
Ans. (a)
7. The President can be removed by the way of impeachment which can be made only:
(a) by the Supreme Court
(b) by the Rajya Sabha
(c) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) cannot be impeached.
Ans. (c)
8. The oath is administered to the President of India by:
(a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) Speaker of the Parliament.
Ans. (a)
9. The President of India nominates:
(a) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
10. The President of India is:
(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces
(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
(c) Head of the Government
(d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and Executive Head of the Union.
Ans. (d)
11. The Constitution of India vests vast powers in the President. These powers and functions make him:
(a) almost a dictator
(b) a benevolent ruler
(c) real head of the Government
(d) a nominal constitutional head.
Ans. (d)
12. In the context of qualifications for contesting the election of the President, which of the following statement is incorrect:
(a) he should be citizen of India
(b) he should not hold office of profit
(c) he should be qualified for the election of the House of People
(d) he should be aged 30.
Ans. (d)
13. The President of India is elected:
(a) directly
(b) indirectly
(c) indirectly by secret ballot
(d) indirectly by secret ballot and by proportional representation system by means of single transferable vote.
Ans. (d)
14. In the election of the President, each Member of the electoral college has:
(a) one vote
(b) as many votes as there are candidate
(c) one vote with value attached to it
(d) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates.
Ans. (d)
15. All matters relating to, or connected with the election of the President including an election petition are enquired into and decided by:
(a) a tribunal constituted for the purpose of Election of President
(b) any High Court where the petition is moved
(c) a committee specially constituted for the purpose by the Rajya Sabha
(d) the Supreme Court of India.
Ans. (d)
16. Give correct response to:
(a) the President of India is eligible for reelection as many times as he desires
(b) the President of India is ineligible for reelection
(c) the President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three terms
(d) the President of India can seek re-election as many times under the letter of Constitution, but there is well established convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two terms.
Ans. (d)
17. The term of the office of Vice President is:
(a) five years from the date on which he enters upon his office
(b) five years from the date on which he takes oath of the office
(c) five years from the date of his election is announced
(d) five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Ans. (a)
18. As per new Law, 2009, what is true about monthly salaries of Supreme Court and High Court Judges of India:
(a) Rs. 1,00,000 to Chief Justice of Supreme Court, Rs. 90,000 to other judges of Supreme Court and Rs. 90,000 to Chief Justice of a High Court and Rs. 80,000 to other Judges of a High Court
(b) Rs. 90,000 to Chief Justice of Supreme Court, Rs. 75,000 to other judges of Supreme Court and Rs. 80,000 to Chief Justice of a High Court and Rs. 70,000 to other Judges of a High Court
(c) Rs. 80,000 to Chief Justice of Supreme Court, Rs. 70,000 to other judges of Supreme Court and Rs. 65,000 to Chief Justice of a High Court and Rs. 60,000 to other Judges of a High Court
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
19. In regard to the qualifications for the election of Vice President, which of the following statements is incorrect:
(a) he should be citizen of India
(b) he should have attained the age of 35 years
(c) he should not hold the office of profit
(d) he should be qualified to be a Member of Lok Sabha.
Ans. (d)
20. All matters relating to the election of the Vice President including any election petition shall be enquired into by:
(a) Election Tribunal specifically constituted for the purpose
(b) Supreme Court
(c) a committee constituted for the purpose by Rajya Sabha
(d) any High Court where the petition is moved.
Ans. (b)
21. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is:
(a) the President of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
22. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is vested with:
(a) President of India on the advice of Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Lt. Governors of the Union territories.
Ans. (a)
23. The Vice President of India is elected by:
(a) way of people’s representation
(b) the representatives of State and Central Legislature
(d) the Members of both the Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting.
24. The Executive Power of the State is vested with:
(a) People of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) Governor of the State
(d) State Legislature.
Ans. (c)
25. Power of Governor to grant pardon etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in:
(a) Article 159
(b) Article 161
(c) Article 162
(d) Article 163.
Ans. (b)
26. The definition, appointment, terms etc. of the Governor of the State has been given in:
(a) Part VI Chapters I & II, Articles 153-162
(b) Part VI Chapter I, Articles 152-162
(c) Part VI Chapters I & II, Articles 152-162
(d) Part VI Chapter II, Articles 153-162.
Ans. (d)
27. Which one of the following is incorrect statement as regards to the term of office of the Governor:
(a) the Governor writing under his hand addressed to the President, resigning his office
(b) the Governor is in the office as long as the President is pleased with his function
(c) the term is five years from the date of assuming the office
(d) the term is five years until he attains the age of 65.
Ans. (d)
28. Give the correct response:
(a) The President is the executive head of the Union and he exercises no legislative or judicial powers
(b) The President is the part of Parliament
(c) The President has the power to pardon; he is also a judicial head of the union
(d) The President has discretion to appoint any person as Prime Minister.
Ans. (b)
29. The President appoints:
(a) Advocate General
(b) Solicitor General
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General.
Ans. (d)
30. Give correct response to:
(a) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the President of India
(b) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament
(c) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
(d) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Prime Minister.
31. The Governor holds office:
(a) for a period of five years
(b) for a period of four years
(c) till the pleasure of the President
(d) during the pleasure of President, and if not recalled earlier, for the period of five years, but continues in the office thereafter till his successor takes over.
Ans. (d)
32. The Executive Head of the State is the Governor but he is a formal executive. The real executive consists of:
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
(c) Governor and Chief Minister
(d) Chief Minister, Council of State and Chief Secretary of the State.
Ans. (b)
33. The Governor also acts as an agent of the Central Government in the State. When he acts in that capacity, he is responsible to:
(a) President of India
(b) The Central Government
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.
Ans. (a)
34. In the performance of his duties in the exercise of his powers, the Governor:
(a) is answerable in the court of law.
(b) is not answerable in the court of law.
(c) can be impeached by the Vidhan Sabha
(d) is answerable to Vidhan Sabha.
Ans. (b)
35. Only that person is qualified to be the Governor of the State who is citizen of India and:
(a) who has completed the age of 35 years
(b) who is eligible to be elected to Vidhan Parishad
(c) who has completed the age of 30 years and who does not hold any office of profit
(d) who is not member of any House of Parliament or State Legislature.
Ans. (a)
36. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President:
(a) Chairman of UPSC
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Ans. (d)
37. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected:
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Leader of the majority party
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Senior-most Governor.
Ans. (c)
38. Executive power of the Union is vested in:
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers.
Ans. (b)
39. Assertion (A): The Constitution vests executive powers of the Union in the President of India.
Reason (R): President of India is the Constitutional head of the State:
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
40. Which of the following statements is correct:
(a) The President may continue to be a member of Parliament even after assuming charge of the Presidential office
(b) The President is not barred from holding any other office of profit even after assuming charge of Presidential office
(c) The President is entitled to use his official residence only on payment of rent fixed
(d) The emolument and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Ans. (d)
41. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
(a) elected members of the Council of State and House of People
(b) elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the State Assemblies
(c) members of the Council of States, State Legislative Councils and Members of Union Territorial Assemblies
(d) members of municipalities, local bodies and Panchayat, graduate of three years standing, teachers of higher educational institutions and members of State Assemblies.
Ans. (b)
42. Which one of the following is correct statement of the decision in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar:
(a) President is entitled to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the Parliament
(b) Colourable re-promulgation of ordinances is unconstitutional
(c) Article 123 empowers the President to issue successive ordinances
(d) Governor’s power of re-issuance of ordinance cannot be questioned in the Court of law.
Ans. (b)
43. Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute sentence.
Reason (R): The President exercises not only executive functions but also judicial and legislative functions:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
44. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
Ans. (b)
45. The Executive powers of the Union Government are vested in the President of India. The President shall exercise these powers:
(a) himself
(b) directly or through officers subordinate to him if he so desires
(c) either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(d) only on the advice of Prime Minister.
Ans. (c)
46. In the performance of his duties and in the exercise of his powers, the Governor:
(a) is answerable in the court of law
(b) is not answerable in the court of law
(c) can be impeached by Vidhan Sabha
(d) is answerable to Vidhan Sabha.
Ans. (b)
47. The Constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the:
(a) Parliament
(b) Home Minister
(c) President of India
(d) Chairman of SC/ST Commission.
Ans. (a)
48. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of:
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) six months
(d) nine months.
49. The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a proclamation under Article 356. The action of the President:
(a) cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency powers
(b) cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the courts from reviewing political actions
(c) can be reviewed as it goes against fundamental rights
(d) can be reviewed as it is mala fide.
Ans. (d)
50. Which one of the following propositions is a correct description of the powers of President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution:
(a) If the Chief Minister inspite of commanding the confidence of the Legislative Assembly cannot lead this government in accordance with the Constitution, President can proclaim emergency
(b) If the law and order in the state completely breaks down, the President can proclaim emergency
(c) The President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for advice and act in accordance with such advice
(d) The President cannot make a proclamation of emergency if the Governor refuses to make a report.
Ans. (b)
51. Assertion (A): The President of India can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1) on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Reason (R): Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all fundamental rights except Articles 20 & 21:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
52. Which one of the following statements is correct:
(a) Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(b) The Governor of the State holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(c) The Prime Minister can only be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed at the pleasure of the President.
Ans. (b)
53. The President of India has power to declare emergency under Article 352 on which of the following grounds:
(1) War
(2) External aggression
(3) Internal disturbance
(4) Armed Rebellion
Codes –
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4.
Ans. (b)
54. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution the President of India under Article 356:
(a) has to proclaim President’s rule in the State
(b) has to dismiss the State Government and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
(c) has to dismiss the Government but keep the Legislative Assembly in a State of suspended animation
(d) may refuse to impose President’s rule in the State.
Ans. (d)
55. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a:
(a) executive power
(b) legislative power
(c) constituent power
(d) quasi-judicial power.
Ans. (b)
56. Which one of the following statements is not correct:
(a) There shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advice the President who shall act in accordance with such advice
(b) The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice
(c) The President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration
(d) The President shall act at his own discretion.
Ans. (d)
57. A. The Constitution of India is silent as to the manner in which the Presidential power is to be exercised:
B. It can be said that this power, like other powers of the President, is expected to be exercised on the advice of the cabinet:
Codes –
(a) A is correct
(b) B is correct
(c) A is true and B is an assumption
(d) B is true and A is an assumption.
Ans. (c)
58. The pardoning power given to the President of India under Article 72 can be exercised:
(a) only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction
(b) during or after trial but never before trial
(c) at any time before, during or after the trial
(d) either before or after the trial but never during the trial of the case.
Ans. (a)
59. The power to grant pardons, reprieves or remissions of punishment under Article 72 is exercised by the President of India:
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) on his own as Head of the Union
(c) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(d) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet.
Ans. (c)
60. Give correct response to:
(a) the President of India is the real Head of the Union
(b) the President of India is merely a nominal Head of the Union
(c) the President of India is a Constitutional Head of the Union
(d) the President of India is only a ceremonial Head of the Union.
Ans. (b)
61. Salaries and allowances to be paid to the Judges of each High Court may be determined by the _____.
A. President
B. State Legislature
C. Parliament
D. Supreme Court
Ans. C
62. Tikana means:
A. A permanently settled estate paying a fixed annual revenue of Rs. 1,681/- and is therefore an estate both under Section 4(7) of the Jaipur State Grants land Tenures Act, 1947 and Art 31A
B. A permanently settled estate paying a fixed annual revenue of Rs. 1,581/- and is therefore an estate both under Section 5(7) of the Jaipur State Grants land Tenures Act, 1947 and Art 31A
C. A permanently settled estate paying a fixed annual revenue of Rs. 1,481/- and is therefore an estate both under Section 6(7) of the Jaipur State Grants land Tenures Act, 1947 and Art 31A
D. None of them
Ans. A
63. The power of the President to transfer a High Court Judge under Article 222 of the Indian Constitution is subject to which of the following safeguards?
I. Consultation with the Chief Justice of India is an absolute condition precedent.
II. The Power to transfer can be exercised only in the public interest, but this would not confer any justiciable right on anybody.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
64. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. When any judge or for any other reason unable to perform the duties of his office, the President may appoint a duly qualified person to act as a Judge of that court until the permanent Judges has resumed his duties.
II. No person appointed as an additional or acting Judge of a High Court shall hold office after attaining the age of sixty two years.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
65. Which of the following is true regarding the status of an Additional Judge?
A. An Additional Judge is not a Judge on probation and also not appointed on terms of being confirmed if found suitable
B. The mode of appointment and the qualifications for appointment of an Additional Judge are the same as those for appointment of a permanent Judge
C. An Additional Judge discharges functions of the same character as a permanent Judge
D. All of them
Ans. D
66. Which of the following is true regarding the functions of High Court?
A. The functions discharged by a High Court can be divided broadly into judicial and administrative functions
B. The Judicial functions are to be discharged essentially by the judges as per the rules of the Court and cannot be delegated
C. Administrative functions need not necessarily be discharged by the Judges by themselves and may be delegated or entrusted by authorization to subordinates
D. All of them
Ans. D
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. A rule making power which existed at the commencement of the constitution can be exercised after such commencement as well.
II. The rules made by the High Court would cease to have effect if the appropriate Legislature made any law on the subject.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
68. Article 226 of the Indian Constitution confers on all the High Court very wide powers in the matter of issuing writs which they never possessed before. Which of the following limitations is/are placed upon the exercise of these powers by a High Court under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution?
A. The power is to be exercised throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction
B. The person or authority to whom the High Court is empowered to issue the writs must be within those territories
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
69. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. It is in public interest that there should be early disposal of cases.
II. Public Interest Litigation should be disposed of at the earliest as any delay will be contrary to public interest and thus become counterproductive.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
70. A writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be issued:
A. Unless the petitioner is in custody or detention
B. Where the effect of granting that writ would be to review the judgment of a Court which is open to appeal
C. Where the detention or custody is authorized by the order of remand issued by a Court of competent jurisdiction
D. All of them
Ans. D
71. The literal meaning of ‘Mandamus’ is_________.
A. Command
B. To prevent
C. To produce
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. A
72. On which of the following grounds may Mandamus be refused?
A. Where the act against which Mandamus is sought has been completed and the writ, if issued, will be in fructuous
B. Where the application is premature, for instance, where no action contrary to law has yet been taken or proposed
C. Where there is no legal or constitutional obligation which is capable of being enforced by Mandamus
D. All of them
Ans. D
73. Mandamus will not be granted against which of the following?
A. President
B. Governor
C. High Court
D. All of them
Ans. D
74. Which of the following are the limitations to the Writ of Prohibition?
A. Prohibition will lie only against judicial and quasi- judicial proceedings and not against the exercise of legislative and executive functions
B. A writ of Prohibition can be issued only so long as the proceedings are pending before the inferior Court and cannot issue after the Court has ceased to exist
C. Prohibition is not available where the inferior tribunal has jurisdiction but exercises it irregularly
D. All of them
Ans. D
75. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for issuing Certiorari?
A. The tribunal must have legal authority
B. Such legal authority must be an authority to determine questions affecting rights of subjects
C. The tribunal must have the duty to act judicially
D. All of them
Ans. D
76. _____ is the remedy or proceeding whereby the State inquiries into the legality of the claim which a party asserts to an office or franchise, to oust him from its enjoyment if the claim be not well founded.
A. Certiorari
B. Quo Warranto
C. Prohibition
D. Mandamus
Ans. B
77. Which of the following orders may be made by the High Court in a proceeding for Quo Warranto under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution?
A. The usual order would be an order of ouster of the respondent the person holding the office in question
B. It may issue an injunction restraining the respondent from discharging any of the functions, rights or duties of the office in question
C. In proper cases, it may even declare the office to be vacant, or allow the person entitled to occupy the office
D. All of them
Ans. D
78. Under Article 227 of the Indian Constitution, the High Court can interfere in cases of:
A. Excess of jurisdiction
B. Violation of the principles of natural justice
C. Refusal of exercise jurisdiction
D. All of them
Ans. D
79. The object of Article 228 is to make the High Court the sole interpreter of the Constitution in a state. Under this present Article:
I. It is the duty of the High Court to withdraw from a Subordinate Court a case which involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
II. It is also the duty of the Subordinate Court to refer the case to the High Court as soon as it discovers that it involves such a question.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
80. Appointments of officers and servants of a High Court shall be made by the _____.
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
C. Governor
D. President
Ans. B
81. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Appointments’ in High Court’ is/are found to be correct?
I. The power of appointment vested in the Chief Justice by this Article cannot be abridged by the legislature.
II. The post of Registrar can be filled up only by the Chief Justice.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
82. According to Article 231 of the Indian Constitution, ____ may by law establish a common High Court for two or more states and a Union territory.
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Governor
Ans. B
83. Article 232 of the Indian Constitution is omitted by the ______.
A. 6th Amendment Act
B. 7th Amendment Act
C. 5th Amendment Act
D. 8th Amendment Act
Ans. B
84. Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any state shall be made by the-
A. Chief justice of high Court
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Governor
D. Chief Minister
Ans. C
85. Article 233 of the Indian Constitution confers upon the Governor certain specific powers as regards, district Judges, namely-
A. Appointment
B. Posting
C. Promotion
D. Ali of them
Ans. D
86. The competent authority to remove judicial officers in a state is the:
A. Governor
B. High Court
C. Chief Minister
D. President
Ans. A
87. The word ‘Control’ in Article 235 of the Indian Constitution is used in comprehensive sense to include-
A. Disciplinary control over the presiding judges
B. Transfers of district Judges
C. Compulsory retirement of a District judge
D. All of them
Ans. D
88. Which of the following judges can be held to belong to judicial service?
A. Labour Court judges
B. Judges of them industrial Courts
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
89. Which of the following statements regarding the Status of Administrator’ is/are found to be correct?
I. The Administrator of a Union Territory appointed under Article 239 of the Indian Constitution is not a Constitutional functionary like the Governor of a State and is not bound to act on the advice of his council of Ministers.
II. The Administrator is a delegate of the President and cannot be likened to a Governor.
III. The Administrator is the medium through which the President exercised the function of administering the union Territories.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II
Ans. C
90. By which of the following Amendment Act, the Union territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
A. 60th Amendment Act
B. 61st Amendment Act
C. 69th Amendment Act
D. 71st Amendment Act
Ans. C
91. Who among the following may promulgate ordinances in the Union territory during recess of the Legislature?
A. Governor
B. Lieutenant Governor
C. Administrator
D. Chief Minister
Ans. C
92. ______ may by law constitute a High Court for a Union Territory or declare any Court in any Such territory to be a High Court for all or any of the purposes of this Constitution.
A. State Legislature
B. President
C. Parliament
D. Governor
Ans. C
93. The______ may exercise such powers and perform such function at the village level as the legislature of a State may, be law, provide.
A. Gram Sabha
B. Panchayat
C. Panchayat Samiti
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. A
94. The_______ may by law, make provisions with respect to the composition of penchants.
A. Union Parliament
B. Governor
C. State legislative
D. President
Ans. C
95. Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for_________ from the date appointed for its meeting and no longer.
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. During the pleasure of Sarpanch
Ans. B
96. Which of the following powers and responsibilities may be endowed to the Panchayats by the State legislatures?
A. The preparation of plans for economic development and social justice
B. The implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
97. Who among the following shall constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats?
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. State legislature
D. President
Ans. B
98. Each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be known as:
A. Constituency
B. Demarcated area
C. Electoral’s area
D. Wards
Ans. D
99. The number of seats which are reserved for women in every municipality is:
A. 1/2 of the total members
B. 1/4 of the total members
C. 1/3 of the total members
D. 1/6 of the total members
Ans. C
100. Which of the following bodies conducts the election to the Municipality?
A. State Election Commission
B. Election Commission of India
C. Chief Minister office
D. High Court
Ans. A
101. Parliament may, by law, form within the State of Assam an autonomous state comprising all or any of the tribal areas.
Which of the followings is/are created for the administration of autonomous state?
A. A body whether elected or partly nominated and partly elected, to function as a legislature for the autonomous State
B. A council of Ministers
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
102. There are total_______ subjects in the Union list.
A. 99
B. 94
C. 90
D. 60
Ans. A
103. Subjects like public health, agriculture and public order and police are included in the:
A. Union list
B. Concurrent list
C. State list
D. Residuary Powers
Ans. C
104. Article 246 of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of______ powers as between the Union and the State legislatures with reference to the different lists in the seventh schedule.
A. Legislative
B. Executive
C. Judiciary
D. Financial
Ans. A