100 sample questions and answers on law for school and college students!
1. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “every suit shall be instituted by presenting a plaint in duplicate to the court or such officer as it appoints in this behalf.” This is provided under:
(a) Section 26
(b) Section 20
(c) Order 3, Rule 1
(d) Order 4, Rule 1
Ans. (d)
2. Which one of the following is not a decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908:
(a) Rejection of a plaint for non-payment of court fee.
(b) Any order of dismissal for default.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
3. Documents which are meant for cross examination of a witness of the other party may be produced:
(a) Till settlement of issues.
(b) After settlement of issues.
(c) Any time when required.
(d) Along with the pleading.
Ans. (c)
4. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a plaint is rejected by the court in absence of cause of action:
(a) Order 7, Rule 11(a)
(b) Order 7, Rule 11(b)
(c) Order 7, Rule 11(c)
(d) Order 7, Rule 11(d)
Ans. (a)
5. Under which of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 attachment before judgment is provided:
(a) Order 38, Rule 5-13
(b) Order 39, Rule 1 and 2
(c) Order 40, Rule 1
(d) Section 96
Ans. (a)
6. On which one of the following grounds under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a warrant of arrest against a “judgment debtor” may be cancelled by the court:
(a) Serious illness.
(b) Appearance in marriage of his son.
(c) To cast vote in general elections.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
7. A decree against Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months.
Ans. (c)
8. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 copy of plaint:
(a) Shall be attached with every summons.
(b) Is not necessary to attach with every summons.
(c) May be attached with the summons when court permits.
(d) Is attached with summons on the request of the plaintiff.
Ans. (a)
9. Which one of the following is not suit of Civil Nature:
(a) Suits for rights to hereditary offices.
(b) Suits for rights of franchise.
(c) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments of offerings.
(d) Suits relating to right of worship.
Ans. (c)
10. ‘Prison’ as defined in Order 16A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 includes:
(a) Any place which has been declared by the Government, by General or special order, to be subsidiary jail.
(b) Any reformatory, borstal institution or other institution of a like nature.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (a) is correct
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following is the member of Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT):
(a) Israel
(b) China
(c) North Korea
(d) India
Ans. (b)
12. In January 2015 Edgar Lunga was elected as President of:
(a) Italy
(b) Zambia
(c) Greece
(d) Egypt
Ans. (b)
13. 68th World Health Assembly took place in:
(a) Delhi
(b) London
(c) Geneva
(d) New York
Ans. (c)
14. World Future Energy Summit 2015 took place in:
(a) Dubai
(b) Tehran
(c) Abu Dhabi
(d) New York
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following countries has become 161st member of World Trade Organisation:
(a) Seychelles
(b) Latvia
(c) Nepal
(d) Yemen
Ans. (a)
16. The third U.N. World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction was held in March, 2015 in:
(a) China
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Japan
(d) India
Ans. (c)
17. World Refugee Day is observed every year on:
(a) 20th June
(b) 20th July
(c) 20th August
(d) 20th September
Ans. (a)
18. With which country India has signed intergovernmental agreement on “Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act” on 9th July, 2015:
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) America
(d) England
Ans. (c)
19. Total number of members in the European union is:
(a) 27
(b) 28
(c) 35
(d) 30
Ans. (b)
20. Which one of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) Trygve Lie – Norway
(b) Kurt Waldheim – Sweden
(c) U. Thant – Myanmar
(d) Kofi Annan – Ghana
Ans. (b)
21. On January, 15, 2015 India has signed a Motor Vehicle Agreement with following three SAARC countries:
(a) Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Nepal
(c) Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal
(d) Bhutan, Bangladesh, Maldives
Ans. (c)
22. Who has described international law as “positive international morality”:
(a) Halland
(b) Austin
(c) Stark
(d) Oppenheim
Ans. (b)
23. Which of the following elects the judges of International Court of Justice:
(a) The General Assembly of United Nations.
(b) Security Council of United Nations.
(c) International Court of United Nations.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
24. Who says “international law is a vanishing point of jurisprudence”:
(a) Brierly
(b) Halland
(c) Pollok
(d) Stark
Ans. (b)
25. National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 came into force:
(a) on April 13, 2015
(b) on December 31, 2014
(c) is not inforce, yet
(d) on January 31, 2015
Ans. (a)
26. Who was the Indian candidate for the post of Secretary General of the United Nations:
(a) Soli Sorabjee
(b) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(c) Vijay Nambiar
(d) Shashi Tharoor.
Ans. (d)
27. International law also develops through State practices. It is known as:
(a) International Treaty
(b) International Comity
(c) International Customary Law
(d) International Morality.
Ans. (c)
28. Rule of State Succession was first incorporated from the Roman law by:
(a) Bentham
(b) Kelsen
(c) Oppenheim
(d) Grotius.
Ans. (d)
29. “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it.” This observation was made in Queen v. Dudley and Stephens by:
(a) Lord Denman
(b) Lord Coleridge
(c) Lord Acton
(d) Justice Pollock.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
30. “Judges not only discover law but also they made law.” This view is supported by:
(a) Gray
(b) Dicey
(c) Salmond
(d) Blackstone.
Ans. (d)
31. Dealing with the sources of law who amongst the following was said that, “The Courts fuel — life into the dead words of statute”:
(a) Holland
(b) Gray
(c) Salmond
(d) Austin.
Ans. (b)
32. The period of limitation within which defendants shall submit his written statement is:
(a) 30 days from service of summons
(b) 40 days from service of summons
(c) 60 days from service of summons
(d) 120 days from service of summons.
Ans. (a)
33. Judgement under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 means:
(a) A decree
(b) Dismissal of appeal summarily
(c) Statement of grounds of an order or decree
(d) All the above
Ans. (c)
34. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Appeal to the Supreme Court.
Ans. (c)
35. “No right of action is conferred on a transfer in possession under an unregistered contract of sale.”
Which Section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains this Principle:
(a) Section 35
(b) Section 41
(c) Section 53
(d) Section 53A.
Ans. (d)
36. The amendment of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the year 2002 amended the provision of:
(a) Section 100
(b) Section 106
(c) Section 108
(d) Section 110.
Ans. (b)
37. Which property cannot be transferred:
(a) A public office
(b) A mere chance to succeed
(c) A mere right of re-entry
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched:
(a) Mens-rea – R v. Prince
(b) Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard
(c) Insanity – McNaghtens case
(d) Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu
Ans. (b)
39. ‘A’ commits theft on property in ‘B’ possession and while committing theft he has a loaded pistol under his garment kept for the purpose of hurting ‘B’ in case ‘B’ resists:
The offence committed by ‘A’ is defined under which section of the Indian Penal Code-
(a) Section 382
(b) Section 379
(c) Section 390
(d) Section 381.
Ans. (c)
40. The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of:
(a) theft and dacoity
(b) culpable homicide and murder
(c) kidnapping and abduction
(d) abatement and conspiracy.
Ans. (c)
41. Theft is an offence against:
(a) A person
(b) Immovable property
(c) Movable property
(d) Both movable and immovable property.
Ans. (c)
42. A married man commits the offence of adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a:
(a) Unmarried woman
(b) Married woman except his wife
(c) Any woman except his wife
(d) Unmarried woman without her consent.
Ans. (b)
43. “A” puts jewels into a box belonging to “B” with the intention that they may be found in that box, with the result that ‘B’ may be convicted for the offence of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence under:
(a) Section 191 of Indian Penal Code
(b) Section 192 of Indian Penal Code
(c) Section 193 of Indian Penal Code
(d) ‘A’ has committed no offence.
Ans. (b)
44. ‘X’ drives very fast through a crowded road to catch a flight, knowing that his act in all probability may cause death. ‘Y’ is killed by his vehicle. ‘X’ is guilty of:
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) Murder
(c) Grievous hurt
(d) Negligence.
Ans. (b)
45. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with voluntary intoxication:
(a) Section 84
(b) Section 85
(c) Section 86
(d) Section 87.
Ans. (b)
46. When was the RIO Declaration on Environment and Development made:
(a) In June 1992
(b) In December 1989
(c) In June 1997
(d) In September 2002.
Ans. (a)
47. The International Labour Organization (ILO) on December 10, 2011 released a report on the employment scenario in:
(a) Oman
(b) Iraq
(c) Pakistan
(d) Afghanistan.
Ans. (d)
48. Copenhagen Accord on climate change is:
(a) A binding treaty
(b) Not a binding treaty
(c) A declaration of General Assembly
(d) An optional protocol.
Ans. (b)
49. Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 the term “offence” has been defined:
(a) Section 40
(b) Section 2(n)
(c) Section 2(w)
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
50. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, for the first time provision for compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences, has been made under:
(a) Section 35 of the Code
(b) Section 35(B) of the Code
(c) Section 35(A) of the Code
(d) Section 34 of the Code
Ans. (c)
51. ‘A’ deposits a box of jewels with ‘B’ as his agent. ‘C’ alleges that the jewels were wrongfully obtained by ‘A’ from him and claims them from ‘B’. Here ‘B’:
(a) can institute interpleader suit against ‘A’.
(b) can institute interpleader suit against ‘C’.
(c) can institute interpleader suit against ‘A’ and ‘C’ both.
(d) cannot institute an interpleader suit against ‘A’ and ‘C’.
Ans. (d)
52. Point out the wrong statement:
(a) Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear, when the suit is called for hearing, the court shall dismiss the suit and the plaintiff shall be barred from filing a fresh suit on the same cause of action.
(b) No appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.
(c) The plaintiff may apply to the court which passed an ex parte decree against him, for an order to set it aside.
(d) No court shall set aside a decree passed ex parte merely on the ground that there has been an irregularity in the service of summon upon the defendant.
Ans. (b)
53. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, objection to jurisdiction as to the place of suing shall not be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court. Unless such objection was taken:
(a) in the court of first instance.
(b) at the earliest possible opportunity.
(c) and there has been a consequent failure of justice.
(d) when all the conditions; of (a), (b) and (c) are fulfilled.
Ans. (d)
54. The nature of Revision under Code of Civil Procedure is that:
(a) it operates as a stay of the proceedings.
(b) it operates as a stay of the suit.
(c) it operates as a stay of proceedings and suit both. ‘
(d) it shall not operate as a stay of the suit or proceedings except where such suit or proceedings is stayed by the High Court.
Ans. (d)
55. Justice J.S. Verma Committee Report of January 23, 2013 has recommended that non- penetrative forms of sexual contact should be regarded as:
(a) Rape
(b) Sexual Assault
(c) An offence under Section 354 of Indian Penal Code
(d) Defamation
Ans. (b)
56. Who can issue a search warrant to search a Post Office:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Civil Court
(c) Revenue Court
(d) High Court
Ans. (a)
57. Which Judge of the Supreme Court of India was elected as a Judge of the International Court of Justice in April, 2012:
(a) Justice Swatanter Kumar
(b) Justice Dalbir Bhandari
(c) Justice Arijit Pasayat
(d) Justice A.K. Patnaik
Ans. (b)
58. Which original member of the United Nations was not represented at the San-Francisco Conference in 1945 and did not therefore sign the United Nations Charter on 26 June, 1945:
(a) India
(b) Belarus
(c) Poland
(d) Ukraine
Ans. (c)
59. Which one of the following does not apply to the term of office of Governor:
(a) The Governor shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President.
(b) Minimum age for the post of Governor shall be thirty-two year.
(c) The Governor may resign by handwritten signed addressed to the President.
(d) The term of Governor shall be five years.
Ans. (b)
60. In which of the following case the Supreme Court called Article 22 of the Constitution as “Ugly provision of the Constitution”:
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(b) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(c) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
(d) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Ans. (d)
61. The person associated with PIL is:
(a) Justice Bhagawati
(b) Justice R.N. Mishra
(c) Justice Venkitachelliah
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
62. In which of the following decisions of the Supreme Court of India, a Seven Judges Bench explained the concept of Public Interest Litigation:
(a) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdullah
(b) Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh v. Union of India
(c) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(d) Neeraj Chaudhry v. State of U.P.
Ans. (c)
63. In which of the following decisions, the Supreme Court observed that “mercy petitions filed under Articles 72 and 161 should be disposed of within a period of three months from the date when it is received, as unwanted delays tend to shake the confidence in the system of justice”:
(a) Kuljeet Singh v. Lt. Governor of Delhi
(b) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(c) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab
(d) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
64. Mention the chronology of the following judgments of the Supreme Court of India, starting from the earliest upto the latest case. Use the code given below:
1. Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh v. Union of India
2. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
3. M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore
4. A.I.I.M.S. Students’ Union v. A.I.I.M.S.
Codes:
(a) 3,1,2,4
(b) 1,2,3,4
(c) 4,3,2,1
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Ans. (a)
65. Civil Procedure Code (U.P. Amendment) Ordinance, 2003 relates to:
(a) Section 105, CPC.
(b) Section 103, CPC.
(c) Section 115, CPC.
(d) Section 100, CPC.
Ans. (c)
66. Which one of the following is not a rule of pleading:
(a) Plead the fact and not the law
(b) State the law and plead the facts
(c) Plead material facts only
(d) Plead facts not evidence.
Ans. (b)
67. Point out incorrect answer:
A decree passed by a civil court can be executed by:
(a) The court which passed that decree
(b) The court to which the decree is transferred for execution by the court passing the decree
(c) Any court having jurisdiction concurrent to the court that passed the decree
(d) Either by court (a) or (b) as above.
Ans. (d)
68. A civil court cannot issue commission in the following case:
(a) For examining a person
(b) For examining accounts
(c) To execute partition
(d) To execute a decree.
Ans. (d)
69. Which of the following courts can try summarily offences mentioned in Section 260 of Criminal Procedure Code:
(a) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Any Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Any magistrate of the first class specially empowered by the High Court in this behalf
(d) All the above.
Ans. (d)
70. Which section of Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or detention of women in the execution of decree for money:
(a) Section 55
(b) Section 56
(c) Section 59
(d) Section 60.
Ans. (b)
71. Section 114 of C.P.C. should be read with:
(a) Order 46 Rule 1
(b) Order 47, Rule 1
(c) Order 47, Rule 3
(d) Order 41.
Ans. (b)
72. Who categorised the subject of Jurisprudence as Expositorial Jurisprudence and censorial Jurisprudence:
(a) Holland
(b) Bentham
(c) Kelsen
(d) Paton.
Ans. (b)
73. Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer’s extroversion:
(a) Savigny
(b) Salmond
(c) Julius Stone
(d) Buckland.
Ans. (c)
74. Which one of the following is not generally an essential element of crime:
(a) Actus reus
(b) Mens rea
(c) Motive
(d) Human being.
Ans. (c)
75. Which one of the following case is not related to criminal attempt:
(a) Abhayanand Misra v. State of Bihar
(b) Sudhir Kumar Mukherjee v. State of West Bengal
(c) State of Maharashtra v. Mohd. Yakub
(d) State of Rajasthan v. Om Prakash.
Ans. (d)
76. The case of R v. Dudley and Stephen is related to the defence of:
(a) Insanity
(b) Intoxication
(c) Mistake of fact
(d) Necessity.
Ans. (d)
77. Which of the following combinations are not correctly matched:
1. Sherras v. De Rutzen – Mens rea
2. Barendra Kumar – Intoxication Ghosh v. Emperor
3. Abhayadnand v. – Right to die Misra State of Bihar
4. Gian Kaur v. – Criminal State of Punjab attempt
Select correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4.
Ans. (a)
78. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act: Reason (R): Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans. (b)
79. The right of private defence of property extends to causing of death when the offence apprehended is:
(a) Theft
(b) Mischief
(c) House trespass
(d) Dacoity.
Ans. (d)
80. Which one of the following is not an essential element of Section 34 of Indian Panel Code:
(a) Criminal act done by several persons
(b) Criminal act done in furtherance of a common intention
(c) Pre-arranged plan between persons doing criminal act
(d) Act done in furtherance of common object.
Ans. (d)
81. Which one of the following is not a valuable security:
(a) A postal receipt for an insured parcel
(b) A rent note
(c) A promissory note
(d) A deed of divorce.
Ans. (d)
82. A, in India instigates B, a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a murder in Pakistan. B commits murder. In this case:
(a) A is guilty of abetting murder
(b) A is not guilty of any offence
(c) A is liable for committing murder
(d) None of the above is correct.
Ans. (a)
83. ‘J’, a priest, beats a boy for curing him from evil spirit. The boy dies ‘J’ is:
(a) Not liable for any offence
(b) Liable for culpable homicide
(c) Entitled to the defence of good faith
(d) Liable for attempt to murder.
Ans. (b)
84. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under:
(a) Section 376D, IPC
(b) Section 229, IPC
(c) Section 228, IPC
(d) Section 228A, IPC.
Ans. (d)
85. A contingent contract dependent on the happening of future uncertain event can be enforced when the event:
(a) Happens
(b) Becomes impossible
(c) Does Not happen
(d) None of the above is correct.
Ans. (a)
86. When prior to the due date of performance, the promisor absolutely refuses to perform the contract, it is known as:
(a) Abandonment of contract
(b) Actual breach of contract
(c) Remission of contract
(d) Anticipatory breach of contract.
Ans. (d)
87. When the agent contracts without disclosing name and existence of his principal, in such a case on knowing about the principal, the third party may file a suit against:
(a) Principal alone
(b) Agent alone
(c) Either agent or principal or both
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
88. ‘A’ is indebted to ‘B’. He authorises ‘B’ to sell his house and to pay himself out of the sale proceeds the debts due to him. In the absence of express contract:
(a) ‘A’ can revoke the agency
(b) ‘A’ cannot revoke the agency
(c) Agency is not terminated by’ A’s death
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
Ans. (d)
89. Pledge by a seller in possession of goods after sale is:
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(d) Unlawful.
Ans. (a)
90. ‘A’ hires a carriage of ‘B’. The carriage is unsafe. ‘B’ is not aware of faults in carriage. ‘A’ is injured:
(a) ‘B’ is liable
(b) ‘B’ is not liable
(c) ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are liable jointly
(d) All the above are correct.
Ans. (a)
91. A guarantee which the creditor has obtained by means of keeping silence as to a material circumstance is:
(a) Valid
(b) Invalid
(c) Voidable
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
92. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the irregularities with vitiate trial have been stated in:
(a) Section 460
(b) Section 461
(c) Section 466
(d) Section 467
Ans. (b)
93. Complaint as defined under section 2(d) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is concerned with:
(a) Cognizable offence only
(b) Non cognizable offence only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
94. In which of the following mortgage, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage money:
(a) Simple mortgage
(b) Usufructuary mortgage
(c) Anomalous mortgage
(d) Mortgage by assurance.
Ans. (a)
95. Under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which one of the following is not exempted from personal appearance in the court:
(a) Ministers of Union
(b) Ministers of State
(c) Vice-President of India
(d) Chairman of Public Service Commission
Ans. (d)
96. Inherent powers conferred under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, may be exercised by the:
(a) Supreme Court only
(b) High Court only
(c) District Court only
(d) Supreme Court, High Court, District Court as well as by any Civil Court
Ans. (d)
97. ‘A’ and ‘B’ sue ‘C for recovery of Rs. 1,000. ‘C’ has a debt due to him by ‘A’ alone. Here ‘C’ can:
(a) set off the debt against ‘B’
(b) set off the debt against ‘A’
(c) set off the debt against ‘A’ and ‘B’ both.
(d) cannot set off a debt due to him by ‘A’ alone.
Ans. (d)
98. The term “prescribed” under Section 2(16) of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means:
(a) prescribed by court
(b) prescribed by society
(c) prescribed by rules
(d) none of the above
Ans. (c)
99. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy:
(a) To organize Village Panchayats
(b) Right to education
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to move Supreme Court.
Ans. (a)
100. “Article 21A—Right to education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years” has been inserted in the Constitution by:
(a) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1977
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
(c) The Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992
(d) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992.
Ans. (b)