Indian Penal Code: GK Questions and Answers

Article Shared by

GK questions and answers on Indian Penal Code especially compiled for school, college and law students!

1. ‘X’ puts jewels into a box belong to ‘Y’ with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Y to be convicted of theft. X has:

(a) charged Y for misappropriation of property

(b) fabricated false evidence

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b)

2. Chapter XX of IPC deals with:

(a) offences related to Marriage

(b) defamation

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a)

3. The essential ingredients of a crime are:

(a) motive, mens rea, and actus reus

(b) motive, intention and knowledge

(d) knowledge, intention and action.

Ans. (c)

4. Where the offender is himself in possession of the property and subsequently dishonestly converts it to his own use, the offence committed is a:

(a) theft

(b) robbery

(d) dacoity.

Ans. (c)

5. The limit of solitary confinement is dealt with in:

(a) section 74 of IPC

(b) section 75 of IPC

(d) section 7 of IPC.

Ans. (a)

6. Preparation for the commission of a crime is:

(a) punishable under the IPC

(b) not punishable under the IPC

(c) punishable when the propagation is with the intention of waging war against the Government of India or committing dacoity

(d) not punishable when the preparation is with the intention of waging war.

Ans. (c)

7. X cuts down a tree on Y’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of Y’s possession without Y’s consent. X commits:

(a) no offence until the tree is taken away

(b) the offence of criminal misappropriation of property

(d) the offence of theft, as soon as the severance of the tree from the ground is complete.

Ans. (d)

8. The difference between section 34 and section 149 of Indian Penal Code is:

(a) that whereas is section 34 there must at least be five persons, section 149 requires only two persons

(b) that section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas section 34 creates a specific offence and provides for its punishment

(c) that section 34 requires active participation in action whereas section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly

(d) that section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas section 149 must be combined with the principle offence.

Ans. (c)

9. Five persons concert to loot a bank. Two of them, M and N, stay on in the car, with the engine running on, at the entrance of the bank. Three of them X, Y, and Z, enter the bank. X shoots the cashier, and Y and Z loot the cash. Police suddenly reaches the bank and apprehends Y and Z but X escapes. On seeing the police enter the bank; M and N also run away in the car. Later on, all the five are arrested and charged with the offences of dacoity, looting and murder. M and N plead that they are not guilty of any of the offences, certainly not of murder and looting, as they did not participate in any of these offences. Should their plea prevail:

(a) M and N are not liable for committing robbery and murder

(b) M and N are at best liable for abetting robbery, but not of committing it

(c) since the looting of the bank was committed in furtherance of the common intention of all the five, M and N are equally liable for looting and murder along with X, Y and Z and thus their defence will not prevail

(d) M and N has no complicity in any of the offences.

Ans. (c)

10. Rape is on offence against:

(a) Property

(b) Human body

(d) Social body.

Ans. (b)

11. Is it an indispensable element of dishonesty as defined in section 24 read with section 23 that the alleged wrongful gain should be intended to be caused to a person who is not legally entitled to the property:

(a) yes

(b) no

(d) none of these.

Ans. (a)

12. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follows, the offence is:

(a) attempt to murder

(b) culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(d) attempt to suicide

Ans. (c)

13. “P gives grave and sudden provocation to M. M on this provocation, fires a pistol at P, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill Q. who is near him but out of the sight, M kills Q”.

Taking the view of this illustration give the correct answer:

(a) it is murder

(b) it is not a murder but culpable homicide

(d) it is a culpable homicide.

Ans. (b)

14. Section 511 does not apply in case of:

(a) attempt of riot

(b) attempt of murder

(d) attempt of affray.

Ans. (b)

15. A boy over 11 years but below 12 years of age picked up knife and proceeding towards with a threatening gesture saying that he would cut him into pieces actually stabs him to death:

(a) the boy will not be guilty, as a child under 12 years of age cannot be guilty of an offence

(b) the boy will be guilty because he had attained maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequence of his conduct of mind and the act concurred in this case

(d) the boy will not be guilty of murder as he had not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequence of his conduct.

Ans. (b)

16. Explanation ________ to section 403 states that dishonest misappropriation for a time only is a misappropriation within the meaning of this section:

(a) I

(b) II

(d) IV.

Ans. (a)

17. Extortion is__ if the offender at the time of committing an extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, of instant hurt or of instant wrongful restraint to that person or to some other person, and, by so putting in fear, induces the person to put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted:

(a) theft

(b) dacoity

(d) criminal misappropriation.

Ans. (c)

18. Adultery as defined under section 497 IPC is an offence against:

(a) Wife

(b) Husband

(d) either (a) or (b).

Ans. (b)

19. Y intentionally deceives Z into a belief that Y has performed. Y’s part of a contract made with Z which he has not performed, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to pay money. Y has committed:

(a) the offence of theft

(b) the offence of extortion

(d) the offence of criminal breach of trust.

Ans. (c)

20. Z, a self-styled expert in family planning, gave Y some chemical. After the consumption of the chemical the child in the womb of Y died in the womb. What offence has Z committed:

(a) Z has committed the offence of murder

(b) Z has committed the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(d) Z has committed no offence.

Ans. (c)

21. X takes a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which of the following statements is a complete defence if X is charged under section 361 of the IPC for kidnapping on the ground that the girl was below the age of eighteen years when taken away:

(a) the girl was a student in a college and could understand what was right or wrong for her

(b) the girl was maltreated by the guardians and A promised her a better life

(c) the girl looked more than 18 years of age and the accused had satisfied himself that she was more than 18 years of age

(d) none of these.

Ans. (d)

22. Dishonest intention must precede the act of taking in:

(a) criminal misappropriation

(b) criminal breach of trust

(d) robbery.

Ans. (c)

23. Abetment may include- (i) abetment by instigation, (ii) abetment by conspiracy, (iii) abetment by aid, (iv) abetment by acquiescence and (v) abetment by silence:

(a) only the first three constitute abetment

(b) all the five constitute abetment

(d) only (ii), (iv) and (v) amount to abetment

Ans. (a)

24. Response which of the following statement is incorrect-

The imprisonment in default of payment of fine does not liberate the offender from his liability to pay the fine in full imposed on him. It imposes the following periods of limitations:

(a) a period of six years from the date of sentence within which the fine can be recovered

(b) a longer period in cases in which the offender has been sentenced to imprisonment more than six months

(c) the death of the offender will not extinguish the liability for fine and it can be recovered from any property which is liable for the payment of his debts

(d) all the above.

Ans. (c)

25. Punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder is given in the IPC in:

(a) section 304

(b) section 302

(d) section 498A.

Ans. (a)

26. Removal of ornaments from body of one after causing his death is:

(a) robbery

(b) theft

(d) an offence under section 404.

Ans. (d)

27. A finds a letter on the road containing a Bank note. From the direction and contents of the letter he learns to whom it belongs. He keeps the letter with himself. He is guilty of:

(a) theft

(b) criminal misappropriation

(d) none of these.

Ans. (b)

28. Persons not exempted from criminal prosecution under the Indian Penal Code are:

(a) the President of India

(b) Governors of States

(d) none of these.

Ans. (c)

29. Extortion is defined in:

(a) section 383 of IPC

(b) section 390 of IPC

(d) section 384 of IPC.

Ans. (a)

30. Z dies in possession of furniture and money. His servant X misappropriates it before the money comes into possession of any person entitled to such possession. X has committed the offence defined in:

(a) section 403

(b) section 404

(d) section 406.

Ans. (b)

31. Dacoity is committed:

(a) when two of more persons commit or attempt to commit robbery

(b) when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit robbery

(d) which seven or more persons are engaged in extortion with arms.

Ans. (b)

32. Dacoity is dealt under:

(a) section 394

(b) section 395

(d) section 393.

Ans. (c)

33. Six persons assembled on the platform of Mumbai Railway Station and started fighting with each other. The passengers present at the Railway Station got annoyed and felt disturbed. The public reported the matter to the police.

These six persons are guilty of:

(a) unlawful assembly

(b) rioting

(d) assault.

Ans. (c)

34. A woman ran to a well stating she would jump in it but she was caught before she could reach it. She is guilty of:

(a) attempt to suicide

(b) attempt to injure her

(d) no offence.

Ans. (d)

35. Use of violence by a member of assembly consisting of 12 persons, in furtherance of their common object will constitute:

(a) affray

(b) assault

(d) unlawful assembly.

Ans. (c)

36. In which among the following cases the Supreme Court held that “brutality is inbuilt in every murder but in case of every murder death sentence is not imposed”:

(a) Prem Sugar v. Dharambir, (2004) 1 SCC 113

(b) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Lalit Tandon, (2004) 1 SCC 1

(d) Regu Mahesh v. Rajendra Pratap, (2004) 1 SCC 46.

Ans. (a)

37. Under which among the following cases, the Supreme Court held that woman can be arrested by police at any time and even in absence of lady constable if the arresting officer records the proper reason for such arrest:

(a) State of Maharashtra v. Christian Community Welfare Council of India, AIR 2004 SC 7

(b) R.D. Nayak v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2004 SC 23

(d) Kamalji Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 2004 SC 69.

Ans. (a)

38. Sex with a girl through fraudulent consent amounts to:

(a) simple physical assault

(b) molestation

(d) rape.

Ans. (d)

39. Every murder is culpable homicide but not vice versa. The statement:

(a) is true

(b) is false

(d) depends upon the degree of probability.

Ans. (a)

40. In which case Supreme Court held that the defence of drunkenness can be availed of only when intoxication produces such a condition as the accused loses the requisite intention for the offence:

(a) Appa Salved v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2007 SC 763

(b) Mubarik Hussain v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2007 SC 697

(d) Kamala Devi v. Khushal Kanwar, AIR 2007 SC 663.

Ans. (b)

41. Z is standing in his doorway. A, forces a passage by knocking Z down, and commits house-trespass by entering the house.

A. A is guilty of house-breaking under Section 425, IPC

B. A is guilty of house-breaking under Section 430, IPC

C. A is guilty of house-breaking under Section 445, IPC

D. None of them

Ans. C

42. A has a letter of credit upon B for Rs. 10, 000 written by Z, in order to defraud B, adds a cipher to the 10,000 and makes the sum 1,00,000 intending that it be believed by B that Z so wrote the letter.

A. A is guilty of cheating

B. A is guilty of theft

C. A is guilty of forgery

D. None of them

Ans. C

43. A, picks up the cheque on a banker signed by B, payable to bearer, but without any sum having been inserted in the cheque without B’s consent. A fills up the cheque by inserting the sum of ten thousand rupees.

A. A is guilty of cheating

B. A is guilty of theft

C. A is guilty of forgery

D. None of them

Ans. C

44. A draws a bill of exchange on himself in the name of B without B’s authority, intending to discount it as a genuine bill with the banker and intending to take up the bill on its maturity. Here A, draws the bill with the intent to deceive the banker by leading him to suppose that he had the security of B, and thereby to discount the bill.

A. A is guilty of cheating

B. A is guilty of theft

C. A is guilty of forgery

D. None of them

Ans. C

45. Causing grievous hurt on grave and sudden provocation, not intending to hurt any other than the person who gave the provocation is dealt under-

A. Section 332 of IPC

B. Section 333 of IPC

C. Section 334 of IPC

D. Section 335 of IPC

Ans. D

46. Causing hurt by an act, which endangers human’s life, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 335 of IPC

B. Section 336 of IPC

C. Section 337 of IPC

D. Section 338 of IPC

Ans. C

47. Wrongfully restraining any person is dealt under-

A. Section 339 of IPC

B. Section 340 of IPC

C. Section 341 of IPC

D. Section 342 of IPC

Ans. C

48. A, draws a bill of exchange upon a fictitious person, and fraudulently accepts the bill in the name of such fictitious person with intent to negotiate it.

A. A is guilty of cheating under Section 438, IPC

B. A is guilty of theft under Section 440, IPC

C. A is guilty of forgery under Section 464, IPC

D. None of them

Ans. C

49. A says – “Z is an honest man; he never stole B’s watch-” intending to cause it to be believed that Z did steal B’s watch.

A. A is guilty of cheating

B. A is guilty of theft

C. A is guilty of defamation

D. None of them

Ans. C

50. A, draws a picture of Z running away with B’s watch, intending it to be believed that Z stole B’s watch.

A. A is guilty of cheating

B. A is guilty of theft

C. A is guilty of defamation

D. None of them

Ans. C

51. A, says in good faith – “I think Z’s evidence on that trial is so contradictory that he must be stupid or dishonest” inasmuch as the opinion which he expresses respects Z’s character as it appears in Z’s conduct as a witness, and no further.

A. A is guilty of breach of trust

B. A is guilty of breach of contract

C. A is not guilty of defamation

D. None of them

Ans. C

52. A, says “I am not surprised that Z’s book is foolish and indecent, for he is weak man and a libertine” in as much as the opinion which he expresses of Z’s character is an opinion not founded on Z’s book-

A. A is guilty of defamation under Section 455, IPC

B. A is guilty of defamation under Section 475, IPC

C. A is guilty of defamation under Section 499, IPC

D. A is guilty of defamation under Section 501, IPC

Ans. C

53. If A in good faith accuses Z before a Magistrate; complains of the conduct Z, a servant, to Z’s master; complains of the conduct of Z, a child, to Z’s father, A is-

A. guilty of defamation under Section 455, IPC

B. guilty of defamation under Section 475, IPC

C. guilty of defamation under Section 499, IPC

D. none of them

Ans. D

54. A sits dharna at Z’s door with the intention of causing it to be believed that, by so sitting, he renders Z an object of Divine displeasure.

A. A is guilty of offence under Section 455, IPC

B. A is guilty of offence under Section 475, IPC

C. A is guilty of offence under Section 499, IPC

D. A is guilty of offence under Section 508, IPC

Ans. D

55. A, makes an attempt to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand into Z’s pocket. A fails in the attempt in consequence of Z’s having nothing in his pocket.

A. A is guilty of offence under Section 478, IPC

B. A is guilty of offence under Section 495, IPC

C. A is guilty of offence under Section 500, IPC

D. A is guilty of offence under Section 511, IPC

Ans. D

56. When did the Indian Penal Code received the Governor General’s assent?

A. October 3, 1850

B. October 5, 1852

C. October 6, 1860

D. October 7, 1865

Ans. C

57. Wrongful confinement in secret is dealt under-

A. Section 344 of IPC

B. Section 345 of IPC

C. Section 346 of IPC

D. Section 347 of IPC

Ans. C

58. After the submission of the draft of the Indian Penal Code in 1837, who reviewed the draft Code?

A. Sri Barnes Peacock

B. Sri Rajgopalachari

C. Sir. J.W.Colvile

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

59. The right to prosecution under the Indian Penal Code:

A. is affected by the provisions of other statutes

B. is not affected by the provisions of the other statutes

C. is not applicable under the provisions of the Companies Act

D. is not applicable in the areas of Mikir Hills

Ans. B

60. Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation is dealt under-

A. Section 374 A of IPC

B. Section 375 A of IPC

C. Section 376 A of IPC

D. Section 377 A of IPC

Ans. C

61. All are true except one concerning the duty of the Court in regard to the interpretation of the words of ambiguous import in a penal statute?

A. The court must ascertain if the offence charged is within the meaning of the words of the statute

B. If the only reasonable way of construing a penal statute without stretching its legal language is one, which goes against the accused, then it must be fully upheld in its entirety.

C. It is the duty of the Court to interpret words of ambiguous import in a broad and liberal sense

D. In case of penal statute is uncertain or ambiguous or at capable of two interpretations, the benefit of the ambiguity should go to the accused

Ans. B

62. Intercourse by public servant with woman in his custody is dealt under-

A. Section 373 B of IPC

B. Section 374 B of IPC

C. Section 375 B of IPC

D. Section 376 B of IPC

Ans. D

63. Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years is dealt under-

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans. D

64. mens rea involves:

A. crimes of basic intent

B. crimes of speculative intent

C. crimes of specific intent

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

65. The accused booked two cases containing heroin on a flight from City A to City B and then to City C. On reaching City C, he did not collect the heroin. He was charged with being knowingly concerned in the fraudulent evasion of restrictions on importation of cannabis under customs and excise laws. He was held guilty of the offence charged as he has brought about the importation by deliberate actions committed with a guilty intent. The accused took the victim to a hut and killed him striking over his head. In order to make it an accidental death the dead body was rolled over a cliff. The medical report revealed that death was due to exposure and it was not caused in the hut.

A. The accused is guilty of murder in both the cases

B. The accused is not guilty in the first case however is guilty of manslaughter in the second case

C. The accused is not guilty in neither of the cases

D. The accused is guilty in the first case and not in the second case

Ans. B

66. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property, etc. to prevent distribution among creditors is dealt under-

A. Section 421 of IPC

B. Section 422 of IPC

C. Section 423 of IPC

D. Section 424 of IPC

Ans. A

67. C and F and F invited C to have a fix of his heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected each other several times during one night. Next morning F died on the question of causation:

A. C must convicted of manslaughter

B. C must not be convicted of manslaughter

C. C can be convicted for the possession of heroin only

D. C is neither guilty of possessing heroin nor the death of F

Ans. A

68. The accused in order to evade arrest was holding D against her will and was using her body as a shield. He fired a shotgun at the police officer who returned the fire in which D was killed. Which the following should be the first step of the Court on the question of causation?

A. The Court must immediately convict the accused

B. The Court must direct the jury to be sure that the accused fired the first shot

C. The police officer must be convicted

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

69. Assisting concealment or disposal of stolen property knowing it to be stolen is dealt under-

A. Section 411 of IPC

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC

D. Section 414 of IPC

Ans. D

70. All except one is false statement about legal mens rea:

A. it refers to mental element necessary for the particular crime

B. the mental element may be either intention to do the immediate act or bring about the consequences

C. intention or recklessness as to the elements constituting the actus reus

D. intention can always be satisfactorily defined

Ans. D

71. Mischief is dealt under-

A. Section 426 of IPC

B. Section 427 of IPC

C. Section 428 of IPC

D. Section 429 of IPC

Ans. A

72. To which of the following, the law of presumption applies?

A. volenti non fit injura

B. mens rea

C. de minimus non curat lex

D. none of them

Ans. B

73. What is the position of the mens rea in its purely technical sense for the offences under the Indian Penal Code?

A. it holds the same position as it does under the English Criminal Law

B. it has no application

C. it has indirect application

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans. D

74. Lurking house trespass or house-breaking is dealt under-

A. Section 452 of IPC

B. Section 453 of IPC

C. Section 454 of IPC

D. Section 455 of IPC

Ans. B

75. Punishment for subjecting a married woman to cruelty is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. C

76. Which of the following is a type of legal fault that necessarily does not involve a mental state?

A. Negligence

B. Intention

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans. A

77. Which of the following introduced Section 10-C of the IPC?

A. Amendment Act 10 of 1972

B. Amendment Act 30 of 1974

C. Amendment Act 40 of 1976

D. Amendment Act 42 of 1980

Ans. B

78. Presumption of culpable mental state is a part of:

A. Section 7-C of the IPC

B. Section 8-C of the IPC

C. Section 9-C of the IPC

D. Section 10-C of the IPC

Ans. D

79. Death or grievous hurt caused by one of several persons jointly concerned in house breaking by night, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 458 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans. C

80. Section 10-C was used in which of the following cases?

A. Devaki v. State (Kerela 2000)

B. Devamani v. State (Madras 1983)

C. Devraj v. State of Punjab (1992)

D. Devilal v. State (Delhi administration 1986)

Ans. B

81. A man by deceit causing a woman not lawfully married to him to believe that she is lawfully manned to him and to cohabit with him in that behalf is dealt under-

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans. A

82. Knowingly issuing or signing a false certificate relating to any fact of which such certificate is by law admissible in evidence is dealt under-

A. Section 195 of IPC

B. Section 196 of IPC

C. Section 197 of IPC

D. Section 198 of IPC

Ans. C

83. All except one is false of the crimes that do not require legal fault on the part of the accused.

A. quasi criminal cases which are prohibited in public interest under a penalty

B. cases of public nuisance, libel and contempt of court

C. cases with criminal proceeding but is a mode of enforcing a civil right

D. cases of domestic violence

Ans. D

84. In which of the following conditions a corporation can be prosecuted?

A. if it is a person under Section 10 of the Penal Code

B. if it is a person under Section 11 of the Penal Code

C. if it is a person under Section 12 of the Penal Code

D. if it is a person under Section 14 of the Penal Code

Ans. B

85. The maxim of law impontia excusat legam is intimately connected with which maxim of law.

A. lex cogit ad impossiblis

B. lex non ad impossiblis

C. lex non cogit ad impossiblis

D. lex actus reus impossiblis

Ans. C

86. Two brothers sleeping on the floor of a room. The victim was done to death admittedly by the accused around midnight with a dao when the victim was in deep slumber. The defence stated that the accused in his dream was being throttled by someone so he took out the dao kept the head of the bed to apprehend his attacker. However the dao hit his brother and killed him.

A. The accused must be convicted under criminal liability

B. The accused must be absolved from criminal liability

C. it is a case of automatism

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans. D

87. In which of the following case regarding the ‘degree of proof ‘ and ‘reasonable doubt’ the Supreme Court has held that– “In a criminal trial the degree of proof is stricter than what is required in a civil proceeding. In criminal trial however intriguing may be facts and circumstances of the case, the charges made against the accused must be proved beyond all reasonable doubt, does not stand altered even after the introduction of Section 498-A I.P.C and Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act……………….. The doubt must of reasonable man and the standard adopted must be a standard adopted by a reasonable and just man for coming to a conclusion considering the particular subject matter.”

A. State of West Bengal v. Orilal Jaiswal (1994)

B. Inder Singh v. State (Delhi Administration) (1978)

C. Uma Shankar v. State of UP (1979)

D. Dhram Das Dadhwani v. State of UP (1974)

Ans. A

88. Marrying again during the lifetime of a husband or wife is dealt under-

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans. B

89. Regarding ‘reasonableness of doubt’ in which of the following case the Supreme Court indicated- “That the conscience of the Court can never be bound by any rule but that is coming itself dictates the consciousness and prudent exercise of the judgement. Reasonable doubt is simply that degree of doubt which would permit a reasonable and just man to come to conclusion. Reasonableness of the doubt be commensurate with the nature of the offence to be investigated……… Letting guilty is not doing justice, according to the law”

A. Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh (1990)

B. Nagar Swasthya Adhikari v. Kishan Singh (1969)

C. Ashrubindu Ray v. Chittaranjan Banerjee (1978)

D. None of them

Ans. A

90. Making or counterfeiting a seal, plate, etc., with intent to commit a forgery punishable otherwise than under section 467 of the Indian Penal Code, or possessing with like intent any such seal plate, etc., knowing the same to be counterfeit is dealt under-

A. Section 471 of IPC

B. Section 472 of IPC

C. Section 473 of IPC

D. Section 474 of IPC

Ans. C

91. In case same set of facts attracts a civil suit and also a criminal trial, what should be done?

A. The civil suit should be stayed

B. The criminal case should be stayed

C. The civil suit should be quashed

D. Both should be simultaneously carried out

Ans. A

92. Act caused by inducing a person to believe that he will be rendered an object of Divine displeasure is dealt under-

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans. C

93. Which of the following is a fundamental maxim of natural justice?

A. audi alteram partem

B. nullum tempus occurrit regi

C. memo debet esse judex in propria causa sua

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

94. As far as complaints are concerned, at which of the following stage summons are issued?

A. Section 202 of Cr. PC

B. Section 203 of Cr. PC

C. Section 204 of Cr. PC

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. C

95. X was accused of a criminal offence by Y and the case pended on for 12 years, during which not a single witness was produced by the prosecution. Which of the following article of the Constitution of India in this case was violated?

A. Article 12, Constitution of India

B. Article 15, Constitution of India

C. Article 21, Constitution of India

D. Article 25, Constitution of India

Ans. C

96. Criminal intimidation is dealt under-

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans. A

97. Mr. X was prosecuted for importing gold into India in contravention of Section 8(1) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 read with the notification there under. It was argued that notification dated November 8, 1962 and that the accused could have no idea about as it was published in the Gazette of India while the accused left his country on November 27, 1962.

A. the contention must be upheld as the plea of ignorance is valid

B. the contention must be repelled as the plea of ignorance is not valid

C. the case must be upheld because accused is a foreign national

D. None of them

Ans. B

98. House-trespass in order to the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment for life is dealt under-

A. Section 448 of IPC

B. Section 449 of IPC

C. Section 450 of IPC

D. Section 451 of IPC

Ans. C

99. In a certain case in the High Court an advocate made a complaint against A, a Sub-Inspector of Police that A in course of investigation of a few cases against F in official capacity oppressed him in the exercise of his official capacity which was offence under Section 124 Government of India Act 1910.

A. the High Court has the jurisdiction to summon and punish the delinquent

B. the High Court does not have the jurisdiction to summon and punish the delinquent

C. the High Court has the jurisdiction only to summon the delinquent

D. none of them

Ans. B

100. Which of the following are always exempted from the jurisdiction of criminal courts of every country?

A. Foreign sovereigns and ambassadors

B. Alien enemies, foreign army and warships

C. Presidents and Governors

D. All of them

Ans. D

101. Mischief with intent to destroy or make unsafe a decked vessel or a vessel of 20 tonnes burden is dealt under-

A. Section 434 of IPC

B. Section 435 of IPC

C. Section 436 of IPC

D. Section 437 of IPC

Ans. D

102. Which of the following Section of the IPC relate to extraterritorial operations of the Code?

A. Section 2 and Section 3

B. Section 3 and Section 4

C. Section 2 and Section 3

D. Section 2 and Section 4

Ans. B

103. Kidnapping for ransom, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 361 A of IPC

B. Section 362 A of IPC

C. Section 363 A of IPC

D. Section 364 A of IPC

Ans. D

104. To which of the following section does the Section 4 of the IPC applies?

A. any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India

B. any person on ship or aircraft registered India wherever it may be

C. Both of (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans. C

105. Appellant’s son was married to the complainants and appellant was undisputedly a Mauritius citizen and her son and daughter-in-law were residing in Kuwait. A complaint petition was filed before the chief judicial magistrate XYZ by complainant alleging therein mental torture and physical harassment by her husband. Appellant (mother-in-law of the complainant) who was also made a party filed an application for quashing of proceeding on the ground that cognizance taken by the magistrate was bad in law as she was Mauritius citizen and the alleged offence was committed in Kuwait where only cause of action had arisen:

A. The entire proceeding as been illegally initiated and without jurisdiction and actions taken by the court is liable to be nullified

B. The cognizance taken by the magistrate and the process issued is in order

C. Only the principle of res judicata will apply in such case

D. None of them

Ans. A

106. Fraudulently marking a false mark upon any package or receptacle containing goods, with intent to cause it to be believed that it contains goods which in does not contain etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 485 of IPC

B. Section 486 of IPC

C. Section 487 of IPC

D. Section 488 of IPC

Ans. C

107. Piracy covers:

A. jure gentium

B. statute law of England

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans. C

108. Making or using documents resembling currency-notes or bank notes is dealt under-

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans. B

109. Being bound to attend on or supply the wants of a person who is helpless from youth, unsoundness of mind or disease, and voluntarily omitting to do so is dealt under-

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans. D

110. Acts A, B and C constitute an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act and the same acts A, B and C constitute an offence under Section 408, Penal Code. Therefore:

A. the offender can be punished under both the Acts

B. the offender cannot be punished at all

C. the offender can be punished under either of the Acts but not both

D. none of them

Ans. C

111. Extortion by threat of accusations of an offence punishable with death imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years and if the offence threatened be an unnatural offence is dealt under-

A. Section 388 of IPC

B. Section 389 of IPC

C. Section 390 of IPC

D. Section 391 of IPC

Ans. A

112. Robbery if committed on the highway between sunset and sunrise is dealt under–

A. Section 390 of IPC

B. Section 391 of IPC

C. Section 392 of IPC

D. Section 393 of IPC

Ans. C

113. Which Section of the IPC should be read as provision to Section 105 of the Evidence Act?

A. Section 5 of IPC

B. Section 4 of IPC

C. Section 3 and 5 IPC

D. Section 6 of IPC

Ans. D

Law, India, Penal Code, GK Questions and Answers on Indian Penal Code

Cookie	Duration	Description
cookielawinfo-checkbox-analytics	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Analytics".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-functional	11 months	The cookie is set by GDPR cookie consent to record the user consent for the cookies in the category "Functional".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-necessary	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookies is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Necessary".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-others	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Other.
cookielawinfo-checkbox-performance	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Performance".
viewed_cookie_policy	11 months	The cookie is set by the GDPR Cookie Consent plugin and is used to store whether or not user has consented to the use of cookies. It does not store any personal data.

Judicial Services India