150 Most important mock questions for cracking Indian Judicial Services Preliminary Examination!
1. Which of the following give the Indian Constitution a unitary bias:
I. Rigidity of the amendment process
II. Written Constitution
III. Same Constitution for Centre and States
IV. Indestructibility of the State boundaries
(a) II and IV
(b) I, II and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) III only.
Ans. (d)
2. When a Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List:
I. If Lok Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority that it is in national interest to do so
II. When Legislatures of two or more States requests Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List
III. Under the proclamation of emergency
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and II.
Ans. (b)
3. Both Union and State Legislature can legislate on:
(a) criminal law and procedure
(b) marriage, contracts and torts
(c) economic and social planning
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
4. India is Union of States. This means:
(a) that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement between States
(b) that the original federation of States gave way to Sovereign Republic
(c) that the Constituent Assembly has created the unitary State of India
(d) that the making of the Indian Union was preceded by the prolonged struggle for freedom from foreign rule.
Ans. (a)
5. The most important feature of a federation is:
(a) separation of powers
(b) division of powers
(c) judicial review
(d) Union of States.
Ans. (d)
6. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in:
(a) Article 254
(b) Article 300
(c) Entry 42, List III
(d) Article 156.
Ans. (a)
7. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352:
(a) the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List
(b) the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the Constitution is suspended
(c) a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with the prior permission of the President
(d) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures.
Ans. (a)
8. The executive power relating to concurrent subjects remain with:
(a) the States
(b) the Centre and States
(c) the Constitution
Ans. b
9. The main reason which has contributed to the controversy regarding the true nature of Indian federation is:
(a) lack of clarity regarding the division of powers between the Centre and the States
(b) allocation of too much of powers to the States
(c) creation of a strong Centre
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (c)
10. Which is not correct statement regarding financial emergency:
(a) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
(b) The States may be asked to reserve the Money Bills for the consideration of the President
(c) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(d) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges.
Ans. (d)
11. Indian Constitution reserves the residuary powers to:
(a) Union
(b) States
(c) Parliament
(d) President.
Ans. (a)
12. Kelsen was a professor of jurisprudence in:
(a) London University
(b) German University
(c) Vienna University
(d) Guatemala University.
Ans. (c)
13. Kelsen was:
(a) naturalist
(b) positivist
(c) moralist
(d) individualist.
Ans. (b)
14. Whose legal theory was greatly adopted in America:
(a) Austin’s
(b) Bentham
(c) H.L.A. Hart
(d) Roscoe Pound.
Ans. (a)
15. The main exponent of historical school was:
(b) Savigny
(c) Hago
(d) Puchta.
Ans. (b)
16. Kelsen’s legal theory is also known as:
(a) the pure theory of law
(b) general theory of law
(c) province of jurisprudence determined
(d) the concept of law.
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following schools of Mitakshara claim in respect of certain matters, to be most liberal of the different schools of Hindu Law?
A. Benaras School
B. Mithila School
C. Bombay School
D. Dravida School
Ans: C
18. Who was the President of, The Hindu Law Committee of 1944?
A. Sir. Bengal Narsing Rau
B. Dr. Sen
C. Sir. Drundi Narang Rau
D. None of the above
Ans: A
19. Customs_____________ be extended by analogy.
A. Must
B. Cannot
C. May
D. None of the above
Ans: B
20. According to Mitakshara text, the share of son begotten by Sudra on a female slave, on death of the father is:
A. Equal to sons of wedded wife
B. Equal to daughters of wedded wife
C. Equal to one half of sons of wedded wife
D. He does not get any share
Ans: C
21. An unchaste widow was not entitled, under Hindu law to inherit to her Husband. This statement is
A. True
B. False
C. True under Dayabhaga School
D. True under Benares School of Mitakshara
Ans: A
22. Under text of Mitakshara in which of the following cases will the person be excluded from inheritance?
I. Unchaste daughter
II. Unchaste daughter-in-law
III. Unchaste widow
A. I and III
B. Ill Only
C. Ill and II
D. I, II and III
Ans: B
23. In which of the following cases will the person be excluded from inheritance under Mitakshara School?
A. An unchaste mother of the deceased
B. A mother who remarries
C. Step mother who does not remarry and is chaste
D. Adoptive mother who remarries
Ans: C
24. Which of the following is literal meaning of the word ‘Smritis’
A. Which enounces rules of Dharma
B. Recollection
C. Critical commentary and digest
D. Decalogue
Ans: B
25. Minor to sue by next friend is dealt under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 32, Rule 1
B. Order 10, Rule 9
C. Order 19, Rule 6
D. Order 17, Rule 10
Ans. A
26. The object of section 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure is:
A. Its application to all matters on which the special or local court is silent
B. To preserve the summary character of rent litigation under the local laws
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
27. In the case of United Bank of India v. Rasayan Udhyog the Calcutta High Court held that interest pendente lite and interest for the post decretal period are:
A. Are in the nature of compensation to the plaintiff, for being kept out of the money due to him
B. Are discretionary as indicated by the word ‘may’
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
28. Interlocutory orders under s. 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure fall under of the following heads?
A. Those from which an appeal lies under s. 104(1)
B. Those from which no appeal lies
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
29. When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act comes into play?
A. Section 10
B. Section 18
C. Section 11
D. Section 16
Ans. C
30. When oral admissions as to contents of electronic records are relevant which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act comes into operation?
A. Section 22A
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans. A
31. Section 25, Limitation Act, 1963 applies to which of the following?
A. Easementary rights
B. Natural rights
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
32. Section 25 and 26, Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply in the territories where which of the following Acts apply?
A. Indian Easement Act (5 of 1880)
B. Indian Easement Act (5 of 1882)
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
33. In a suit for removal of obstruction in easementary right, limitation is of how many years from the date of obstruction?
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Four years
Ans. (B)
34. The phrase ‘enjoyment as of right’ in Section 25, Limitation Act, 1963 means which of the following?
A. Enjoyment under leave or license
B. Enjoyment in the assertion of a right
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
35. In order to effectively destroy or prevent the acquisition of an easement which of the following is needed?
A. There must be an actual cessation of the enjoyment caused by an obstruction by the act of some person other than the claimant
B. The obstruction must have been submitted to or acquiesced for one year after the claimant had notice thereof and of the person making or authorising the same to be made
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
36. An express release of an easement during the attachment of the dominant heritage has been held to fall within the prohibition of which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1882, corresponding to Section 64, of the Code of 1908?
A. Section 273
B. Section 274
C. Section 275
D. Section 276
Ans. (D)
37. Public rights are created by which of the following?
A. By statute
B. By dedication by the owner of the land
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
38. Section 25, Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to which of the following?
A. Acquisition of a ferry
B. Acquisition of any other monopoly
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
39. Which of the following are the requirements for the application of the provisions of Section 69 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. The plaintiff must have made an actual or virtual payment of money
B. The plaintiff must have been compelled to pay this money to a third party
C. The defendant must have been legally liable to pay the third party. Though the plaintiff would usually stand in some kind of relationship to the person for whom he paid, no relationship of privity is necessary to give a right of action
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
40. Which of the following are true of Section 190 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
I. It defines a sub agent
II. It provides for a relationship between the principal agent and sub-agent where the sub-agent is properly appointed
III. It describes the relationship where the sub-agent is not properly appointed
IV. It deals with a substituted agent i.e. a person appointed by the agent ti act for the principal
A. I, II
B. II, IV
C. III, IV
D. All of them.
Ans. (D)
41. Which of the following binds the principal under S. 229 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. notice or intimation given to an agent
B. knowledge of any fact material to such transaction acquired by the agent
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
42. Which of the following can interfere in the course of injustice?
I. Agreements which conceal crime
II. Agreements which tend to abuse the legal process
III. Agreements ousting or conferring jurisdiction
IV. Agreements to indemnify a surety
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. IV
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
43. Which of the following cases S. 235 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not apply?
A. The case of a man who represents that he has authority from another when he has no authority whatever
B. The case of a man who represents that he has certain authority from another when he has authority of another description
C. The case of an agent whose authority is terminated without his knowledge
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. (D)
44. Which of the following circumstances does the UNIDROIT Principles also give power to modify or adapt the contract?
A. The Court may adapt the contract to make it accord with reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing, upon the request of the party entitled to avoid the contract on the ground that the contract unjustifiably gave the other party an excessive advantage, or the request of the other party
B. The Court may adapt the contract with a view to restore its equilibrium after the parties have failed to negotiate in case of hardship
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
45. Which of the following conditions are essential before the application of the second paragraph of Section 56 of Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. A valid and subsisting contract before the parties
B. There must be some part of the contract yet to be performed
C. The contract after it is entered into becomes impossible of performance
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
46. A __________ to succeed to the properly of her illegitimate son as a heir in class I of the schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
A. Step mother is entitled
B. Adoptive mother is not entitled
C. Mother is not entitled
D. Mother is entitled
Ans. D
47. Step mother___ inherit her step son’s property as______
A. Can, class II heir
B. Can, father’s widow
C. Cannot, father’s widow
D. None of these
Ans. B
48. The heirs mentioned in Class II of the schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, succeed
A. Cumulatively
B. In the order of entries I to XII
C. In the order of entries I to IX
D. Cumulatively for entries I to III and thereafter in the order of entries
Ans. C
49. Prior to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 coming into force
A. Mother ranked as an heir equally with father
B. A mother ranked before the father, except in cases governed by Mayukha Law
C. A mother ranked after the father
D. A mother ranked after the father except in cases governed by Marumakkattayam Law
Ans. B
50. A___________ to succeed to the property of his illegitimate son as an heir under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956(except for cases falling under purview of section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955).
A. Father is entitled
B. Father is not entitled
C. Step father is entitled
D. Adoptive father is not entitled
Ans. B
51. Wife of a second marriage, entered into during the subsistence of first marriage, ____________ the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 came into force, __________ be entitled to inherit the property of the deceased spouse.
A. Before or after, will not
B. Before or after, will
C. After, will not
D. After, will
Ans. C
52. Stridhana _____ absolute property of a female Hindu, __ be the subject of partition.
A. Being, can
B. Being, cannot
C. Not being, can
D. Not being, cannot
Ans. B
53. H, a male Hindu died possessed of property after the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 came into force, leaving his widow W as his sole heir. Which of the following statements will apply?
A. The widow will inherit an absolute estate under section 14 of the Act
B. The section 14 of the Act will not be applicable, she will inherit under section 8 of the Act
C. She will inherit under section 8 of the Act, and her estate will become absolute under section 14 of the Act
D. None of above will apply
Ans. B
54. Which of the following is false about the decree of specific performance?
A. It is a decree in favour of both the plaintiff and the defendant
B. It is executed as money decree
C. It is executed in the manner prescribed in O. 21, r. 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure
D. None of them
Ans. B
55. Which of the following is false about s. 6, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. No suit under this section shall be brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession or against the Government
B. No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section, nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed
C. Nothing in this section shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to such property and to recover possession thereof
D. None of them
Ans. D
56. Which of the following is a remainder man?
A. The assignee
B. The successor-in-title of the life-tenant
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. D
57. Which of the following expressions are not used in the Indian Trust Act, 1882?
A. Express Trust
B. Implied Trust
C. Constructive Trust
D. All of these
Ans. D
58. Which of the following does the term ‘party’ includes in s. 19, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Only the contracting party who is making the contract
B. All the persons whom the contracting party does not represent while making the contract
C. All the persons whom the contracting party represents while making the contract
D. None of these
Ans. C
59. Which of the following does s. 23, Specific Relief Act, 1963 makes clear?
A. A contract, otherwise proper to be specifically enforced, may be so enforced, though a sum may be named in it as the amount to be paid in case of its breach and the party in default is willing to pay the same
B. Where an option is given by the contract to a party either to pay or to carry out the other terms of the contract, the case falls outside the purview of the provision
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
60. Which of the following does s. 21, Specific Relief Act, 1963 makes compulsory for a plaintiff in a suit for specific performance?
A. Claim compensation
B. Reject compensation
C. Award compensation
D. None of these
Ans. A
61. Which of the following words literally mean ‘what was heard from above’?
A. Shruti
B. Dharma
C. Yajur
D. Sama
Ans: A
62. Which of the following words literally mean ‘What was remembered from the beginning’?
A. Veda
B. Shruti
C. Sama
D. Smriti
Ans: D
63. The dedication in which of the following works states “to the seers our ancestors, the first pathfinders “?
A. Dharmashastras
B. Artharva Veda
C. Rigveda
D. Manusmriti
Ans: C
64. Which of the following can be regarded as correct meaning of word jus receptum?
A. Imposed by any superior authority
B. Not imposed by any superior authority
C. Law by acceptance
D. A just and legal system of governance
Ans: C
65. Which of the following is also known as Dharma-sutras?
A. Grihya
B. Shrauta
C. Samayacharika
D. Apara
Ans: C
66. Which of the following statements is true regarding Gautamadharmasutra?
A. It is probably the oldest of the extant works on law
B. It is probably the best preserved of Sutras
C. both A and B are true
D. neither A nor B is true
Ans: A
67. Which of the following subjects is not dealt by Parasha- rasmriti?
A. Achara
B. Vyavahara
C. Prayashchitta
D. None of the above
Ans: B
68. Which of the following scholars observed that “the complete Smriti will be, when discovered, a very precious monument of ancient India, exhibiting the high watermark of Indian acumen in strictly legal principles and definitions”
A. Dr. Jolly
B. Dr. Jacobite
C. Dr. Blackstone
D. M. Kane
Ans: D
69. Which of the following is correct literal meaning of word arthashastra?
A. Science of Government
B. Science of Polity
C. Art of Polity
D. Art of Government
Ans: B
70. The Umiam Hydel-Project dam is located a few kilometers north of
A. Guwahati
B. Shillong
C. Kohima
D. Imphal
Ans: B
71. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC), an autonomous self- governing body was created within the State of
A. Nagaland
B. Meghalaya
C. Assam
D. Mizoram
Ans: C
72. In which of the following States are Garo and Khasi tribes found?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Nagaland
C. Meghalaya
D. Mizoram
Ans: C
73. Manipur has common boundaries with the group of States of
A. Nagaland, Assam and Mizoram
B. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
C. Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura
D. Nagaland, Mizoram and Meghalaya
Ans: A
74. Who, among the followings is the first speaker of Lok Sabha?
A. G. V. Mavlankar
B. Sukumar Sen
C. H. L Kania
D. Arjun Singh
Ans: A
75. An Indian female who was first to be crowned as Miss India?
B. Sushmita Sen
C. Dyna Haden
D. Reita Faria
Ans: D
76. The AU India Kisan Sabha was formed in
A. 1920
B. 1932
C. 1936
D. 1940
Ans: C
77. INS VIRAAT, the only aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy in the Indian Ocean was originally commissioned into the Royal British Navy in 1959 as
A. HMS Hermes
B. HMS Argus
C. HMS Furious
D. HMS Ark Royal
Ans: A
78. Who has been appointed as the Director of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences for a term of five years after the retirement of Prof. Venugopal?
A. Dr. R.C. Deka
B. Dr. C. Ramdoss
C. Dr. T.D. Dogra
D. Dr. P.D. Dave
Ans: A
79. Who among the following was the author of the novel The White Tiger’ published in 2008?
A. Jhumpa Lahiri
B. Arvind Adiga
C. Arundhati Roy
D. Salman Rushdie
Ans: B
80. Who was the Chairman of Sixth Central Pay Commission?
A. R. Pandian
B. Ravindra Dholakia
C. B. N. Sri Krishna
D. J. S. Mathur
Ans: C
81. An athlete can take a longer jump if he comes running from a distance as compared to that when he jumps suddenly. This is because of
A. Inertia of rest
B. Inertia of motion
C. Inertia of direction
D. Inertia of position
Ans: B
82. If water completely filling a bottle be frozen, the bottle cracks because
A. Water expands on freezing
B. Bottle contracts when water freezes
C. External temperature of the bottle is more than the internal temperature
D. Water contracts on freezing
Ans: A
83. If ten bulbs of 100 watt each are kept switched on for one hour each day, the energy consumed per day will be
A. 1 Unit
B. 100 KWH
C. 10 Units
D. 10 KWH
Ans: A
84. Pinki, Rinku and Tinku divide an amount of Rs. 4200 among themselves in the ratio 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 be added to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares?
A. 8:9:7
B. 7:8:6
C. 7:9:5
D. 8:9:6
Ans: A
85. Which of the following uses a handheld operating system?
A. A super computer
B. A personal computer
C. A laptop
D. A PDA
Ans: D
86. Green glands is the excretory organ of
A. Earthworm
B. Cockroach
C. Prawn
D. House-fly
Ans: C
87. Which of the following can serve the summons under rule 3 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Rules, 1986?
A. Police officer
B. Officer of the Court
C. Either A or B
D. None of these
Ans: C
88. Which of the following rules of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Rules, 1986 states that the court dealing with the applications under the Act shall have the power to such order as to cost as may be just?
A. Rule 3
B. Rule 4
C. Rule 5
D. Rule 6
Ans: D
89. Comprehensive amendments to the Wakf Act were made by the Wakf (Amendment) Act, 1984 where were largely based on the recommendations of the Wakf Inquiry Committee set up in_____.
A. March, 1947
B. June, 1957
C. October, 1967
D. December, 1970
Ans: D
90. Every such budget shall be submitted by the mutawalli at least ninety days before the beginning of the financial year to the Board and shall make adequate provision for which of the following under the Wakf Act, 1995?
A. For carrying out the objects of the wakf
B. For the maintenance and preservation of the wakf property
C. For the discharge of all liabilities and subsisting commitments binding on the wakf under this Act or any other law for the time being in force
D. All of these
Ans: D
91. Which of the following will be the duty of every mut- tawali under the Wakf Act, 1995?
I. To carry out the directions of the Board in accordance with the provisions of this Act or of any rule or order made there under
II. To furnish such returns and supply such information or particulars as may from time to time be required by the Board in accordance with the provisions of this Act or of any rule or order made there under
III. To allow inspection of wakf properties, accounts or records or deeds and documents relating thereto
IV. To discharge all public dues
V. To do any other act which he is lawfully required to do by or under this Act
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. III, IV, V
D. All of these
Ans: D
92. ______was responsible for doctrine of Qiyas.
B. Abu Yusuf
C. Muhammad ibn Idris ash-Shafei
D. None of the above
Ans: C
93. Shafei School has large number of followers in ______
A. Egypt
B. Persia
C. Spain
D. Indonesia
Ans: D
94. Which of the deals with when instrument may be rectified in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 19
B. Section 15
C. Section 23
D. Section 26
Ans: D
95. Which following can be enforced under sub-section (3) of s. 14, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
I. Contracts to execute mortgage or furnish security
II. To buy debentures of a company
III. To execute deed of partnership
IV. To buy a share of partner in the firm
A. I, IV
B. II, IV
C. Ill, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
96. Where X, the father of the defendant nos. 1-3 had placed the suit property in the name of the defendant no. 4 under a ‘nominal transaction’, X later contracted to sell the property to the plaintiff and died without executing the sale deed. Applying s. 19(c) in which of the following specific performance can be decreed?
A. Specific performance could be decreed against the defendant nos. 1-3 as legal representatives of X
B. Specific performance could be decreed against defendant no. 4
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
97. Where the relief of specific performance is refused holding that the subsequent purchasers were bona fide purchasers for value without notice and refund of amount paid by plaintiff under an agreement was ordered, which of the following action is improper for the Court in this regard?
A. To prohibit the plaintiff to retain possession of the property until the amount was refunded, and allow the subsequent purchasers to keep possession
B. To allow the plaintiff to retain possession of the property until the amount was refunded, and keep the subsequent purchasers out of possession
C. To prohibit both the plaintiff and the subsequent purchaser to keep possession of the property
D. None of these
Ans: B
98. Where the plaintiff seeks declaration that the transfer pending litigation did not bind him and that a mortgage made by such transferee to a bank was void, such transferee was added as a party. In which of the following cases it was so held?
A. Fatima Bibi v. Saadat Ali
B. Indian Oil Corporation v. Amit Roy Choudhry
C. Ram Swaroop Singh v. Karan Singh
D. None of these
Ans: B
99. Where the plaintiff is found having a title to the suit property entitling him to possession, the Court must grant specific relief of possession, and has no discretion to deny it and grant damages instead, even if enforcing the right would cause hardship to the defendant. In which of the following cases it was so held?
A. Narayan Prusti v. State
B. K. Duriyendra v. State of Orissa
C. Sherrif Iqbal Hussain Ahmad v. Kota Venkata Subbamma
D. None of these
Ans: C
100. A river overflows its banks, flooding the basement of a nearby house. To avoid liability, the carrier of the flood insurance policy for the house most likely will claim that since the river had never before overflown its banks, this involved
A. Indemnification
B. An unavoidable accident
C. The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur
D. An Act of God
Ans: D
101. How does the crime of assault differ from the tort of assault?
A. In the magnitude of injury
B. The relative size of the parties involved
C. Whether words were exchanged
D. The amount of proof needed to win
Ans: D
102. A statement will not be a valid basis for an action in defamation if it is
A. An opinion
B. Oral
C. Short
D. Written
Ans: A
103. If there is a difference between the tort of fraud and the crime of fraud, it is
A. The nature of the harm caused
B. The burden of proof
C. Whether the fraud proximately caused harm
D. How frequently the defendant acted to deceive
Ans: B
104. Besides a cause of action in tort, for fraud, plaintiff cat, also look to bring an action for
A. Bad faith breach of contract
B. The crime of fraud
C. Breach of contract
D. Violation of consumer protection laws
Ans: D
105. Trespass is as to physically interfering with a plaintiff’s exclusive possession of property as nuisance is to interfering with a plaintiff’s
A. Freedom of expression
B. Ownership interest
C. Use and enjoyment of the property
D. Ability to transfer ownership
Ans: C
106. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of water
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains the same
D. Depends on the volume of vapour formed
Ans: B
107. Cathode rays are
A. Electromagnetic waves
B. Radiations
C. Stream of a-particles
D. Stream of electrons
Ans: D
108. The term ‘Let’ is associated with
A. Badminton
B. Chess
C. Hockey
D. Football
Ans: A
109. The oral polio vaccine was discovered by
A. Alexander Fleming
B. Jonas Salk
C. Edmond Fischer
D. Joseph E. Murray
Ans: B
110. The principle being that an agreement of partnership, which will entail a transfer of a license or permit granted by the Government when there is an express provision prohibiting such a transfer is illegal and void ab initio, a partnership in the respect of a lorry business which involves a transfer of permit will be illegal and void under which of the following sections of the Motors Vehicle Act?
A. Section 56(1)
B. Section 57(1)
C. Section 58(1)
D. Section 59(1)
Ans: D
111. The business in law is a new business even if _____________.
A. The business transactions entered into after the separations are of the same kind
B. The business transactions entered into after the separation are on the same lines as the previous transactions
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
112. When Mohammedans live and mess together and trace their origin to a common ancestor, carry on business joint and make acquisitions, their rights are determined in which of the following ways?
A. With reference to the joint Mohammedan family
B. With reference to the contract
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
113. When the assets of a Hindu family are in the hands of a stranger on the dissolution of partnership in which the family was a partner, which of the following is true?
A. Any member of the family who is entitled to a share in the assets has a right to recover his share of the assets
B. For the purpose of ascertaining such a share to take an account, such account has to be taken by the Court at the instance of the plaintiff
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
114. The owner of two factories entered into a partnership and agreed to carry on the business on certain conditions; both the factories were placed at the disposal of the partnership and the profits were to be shared in certain proportions. Which of the following is the appropriate conclusion of this case?
A. The agreement was of partnership
B. It was not necessary for the parties to become joint owners of both factories
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
115. Persons making an agreement to carry out on a money lending business and share of the profits therefrom are partners and constitute a firm under which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Ans: B
116. A mere act of entrustment of stridhan would constitute which of the following?
A. Co-ownership
B. Partnership
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D
117. The word ‘persons’ in section 4, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 contemplates only natural or artificial i.e. legal persons and as such is not entitled to enter into a partnership with which of the following?
A. Another firm
B. Hindu undivided family
C. Individual
D. All of these
Ans: D
118. A firm as such is not entitled to enter into a partnership with another firm or individual as the definition of ‘person’ in which of the following sections of the General Clause Act, 1897 and cannot be imported into Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act?
A. Section 3(39)
B. Section 3(40)
C. Section 3(41)
D. Section 3(42)
Ans: D
119. But whether two or more partnerships or firms constituted under different deeds of partnership are, in reality, only one partnership or not is mixed question of
A. Fact
B. Law
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
120. Doctrine of restitution is contained in:
(a) section 144 of CPC
(b) section 145 of CPC
(c) section 148 of CPC
(d) section 149 of CPC.
121. Section 144 of CPC:
(a) confers a new substantive right
(b) is exhaustive
(c) is equitable in nature
(d) all the above.
122. Restitution under section 144 of CPC can be:
(a) against a party to the suit
(b) against sureties
(c) both (a) & (b)
Ans. (a)
123. Right to lodge a caveat has been provided under:
(a) section 148 of CPC
(b) section 148A of CPC
(c) section 148B of CPC
(d) section 147 of CPC.
124. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of:
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days.
125. Lodging of caveat under section 148A of CPC:
(a) entitles the caveator to receive notice of the application
(b) makes the caveator a party to the suit
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
126. Court fee on a plaint can be permitted to be paid on a subsequent date:
(a) under section 148 of CPC
(b) under section 149 of CPC
(c) under section 151 of CPC
(d) under section 153 of CPC.
127. Under section 149 of CPC on payment of court fee on a subsequent date:
(a) the document shall have the same effect on if the court fee were paid at the first instance
(b) the document shall not have the same effect on if the court fee were paid at the first instance
(c) the document shall have the effect as directed by the court
(d) either (a) or (b).
128. Inherent powers of the court are contained in:
(a) section 151 of CPC
(b) section 152 of CPC
(c) section 153 of CPC
(d) section 150 of CPC.
129. Inherent powers under section 151 of CPC are:
(a) discretionary in nature
(b) in addition to the power conferred under the other provision of the Code
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b).
Ans. (c)
130. Consider the following statements:
1. The General Assembly can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question.
2. The General Assembly may authorize other organs and specialized agencies of the United Nations to seek such advise from International Court of Justice.
3. The Security Council has independent power to seek advisory opinion on a legal question from International Court of Justice.
Of the above statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct, but 3 is wrong.
(b) 1 and 3 are correct, but 2 is wrong.
(c) 2 and 3 are correct, but 1 is wrong.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct.
Ans. (d)
131. What is the name of the Sixth Committee of the United Nations General Assembly:
(a) Legal Committee
(b) Economic and Financial Committee
(c) Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee
(d) Disarmament and International Security Committee
Ans. (a)
132. The year 2013 has been declared by the United Nations General Assembly as:
(a) International Year of Economic Co-operation
(b) International Year of Water Co-operation
(c) Global Year of Social Co-operation
(d) Global Year of Cultural Co-operation
Ans. (b)
133. United Nations Member States voted overwhelmingly on 18 Nov., 2011 to readmit which State as member of the United Nations Human Rights Council:
(a) Sudan
(b) Congo
(c) Libya
(d) Macedonia
Ans. (c)
134. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 embraces the principle of restitutions:
(a) Section 134
(b) Section 144
(c) Section 148A
(d) Section 151
Ans. (b)
135. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on:
(a) 1st March, 1881
(b) 1st April, 1881
(c) 1st July, 1882
(d) 1st August, 1882
Ans. (c)
136. A transfers Rs. 5,000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. B marries without the consent of C, D and E. But obtains their consent after the marriage. Has B fulfilled the conditions:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Cannot say
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
137. A transfers a farm to B for his life with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. What will be effect of his life interest on farm:
(a) Loses
(b) Secures
(c) Conditional loss
(d) Conditional secure
Ans. (a)
138. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) Transfer by ostensible owner – Section 41
(b) Doctrine of part performance – Section 53B
(c) Fraudulent transfer – Section 53
(d) Doctrine of lis pendens – Section 52
Ans. (b)
139. “A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession” is provided in which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 21
Ans. (b)
140. Where the principal money secured is one hundred rupees or upwards, a mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of the deed can be effected only by:
(a) registered instrument
(b) signed by the mortgagor
(c) attested by at least two witnesses
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
141. Which one of the following is not correctly matched:
(a) Police to prevent cognizable offences Sec. 149
(b) Power to arrest to prevent the commission of cognizable offence Sec. 151
(c) Power to certain armed forces officers to dispense assembly Sec. 131
(d) Arrest by Magistrate Sec. 45.
Ans. (d)
142. The rule enunciated by Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is applicable to agreements which are reduced void by:
(a) Mistake
(b) Failure of Consideration
(c) Impossibility of performance of contract
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (c)
143. Assertion (A): Minor’s contract is void. Reason (R): Mortgage executed in favour of a minor is enforceable by him.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans. (b)
144. Which of the following is not a purpose of the United Nations under Article 1 of the Character:
(a) To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems of social character
(b) To bring about adjustment of international disputes by peaceful means
(c) To develop friendly relations among nations
(d) To ensure democratic government and the rule of law in the States of the world.
Ans. (d)
145. Which country has declared in December, 2003 to destroy all Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMDs) and abandon all programmes to develop them:
(a) Israel
(b) Brazil
(c) North Korea
(d) Libya.
Ans. (d)
146. Under the federal system:
(a) all powers are concentrated with the units of federation which pass on some powers of common interest to the Federal Government
(b) all powers are concentrated in the Federal Government
(c) powers are divided between the Central and Provincial Governments
(d) powers are bifurcated between the Centre and units on the basis of periodic referendum.
Ans. (c)
147. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Indian Constitution:
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Eight
(d) Three.
Ans. (d)
148. Though the President is not the member of the Parliament, he performs certain functions as an integral part of Parliament:
(a) he can dissolve the Lok Sabha
(b) he orders elections to the Parliament when its term is over
(c) he accords assent to Bills passed by the Parliament
(d) he summons both Houses of Parliament
(a) a and b
(b) a, b, d
(c) c, d
(d) a, b, c and d.
Ans. (d)
149. Why is Indian Constitution at times referred to as federal in character:
(a) because it stipulates division of powers and is union of States
(b) because the legislature is bicameral
(c) because it guarantees certain fundamental rights to the people
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (a)
150. The Constitution ensures:
(a) an absolute federation
(b) a union
(c) unitary form of government
(d) quasi-federal government.
Ans. (d)