Are you preparing for Indian Judicial Preliminary examination? Here are few questions on Law and GK that will help you in clearing the exam!
Constitution of India:
1. Which of the following directions can be issued by the Court to enforce the Directives indirectly?
A. To issue a notification under the Minimum Wages Act, for the benefit of bonded and other exploited labourers
B. To take various steps for extending the benefit of Article 39A of the Constitution under trial prisoners
C. To lay down procedural safeguards in the matter of adoption of Indian children by foreigners
D. All of them
Ans. D
2. Which of the following statements regarding Article 38 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The state shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.
II. The state shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income and Endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only II
D. Only I
Ans. B
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 43 A of the Indian Constitution i.e. participation of workers in management of industries is/are found to be correct?
I. The state shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organizations engaged in any industry.
II. The insertion of Article 43A opens a new perspective in industrial relations, particularly relating to discharge, reinstatement right to back wages an reinstatement
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
4. Which of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil code is/are found to be correct?
I. The object behind Artie le 44 of the Indian Constitution is to effect an integration of India by bringing all communities on the common platform on matters which are the present governed by diverse personal laws.
II. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution is based on the concept that there is no necessary connection between religion and personal law in a civilized society.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
Ans. D
5. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on ground of exceeding the jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of:
(a) Certiorari
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans. (a)
6. Assertion (A): A Habeas Corpus writ petition dismissed by the Supreme Court can be admitted by High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution.
Reasons (R): In exercising writ jurisdiction the powers of the Supreme Court and High Court are concurrent:
(a) both A & R are true and R is correct explanation
(b) both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
Mohammadan Law:
7. Which of the following statements holds true for list of wakfs published under the Wakf Act, 1995?
A. The list published in official gazette must show the Sunni Wakf and Shia wakf separately
B. The list published under section 5 (2) is final and conclusive
C. The list published under section 5 (3) is final and conclusive subject to section 6 (1)
D. The list sent to board under 5 (1) is final and conclusive
Ans: A
8. Which of the following wakf will be invalid under Mahomedan law?
A. A wakf on property which has been given on lease
B. A wakf on property which has been mortgaged to bank
C. A wakf made on immovable property
D. A wakf made on dower debt which may be paid to widow at the option of residuaries
Ans: D
9. Which of the following statements hold true under Shia law?
A. The wakif can provide for the payment of his personal debts out of the income of the property of wakf
B. The wakif can provide for the payments of his personal debts out of the property of wakf
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
10. Which of the following statements is not true regarding remuneration of mutawalli?
A. Trust deed can fix remuneration of mutawalli in excess of 30% of the income of the wakf property
B. Court can fix the remuneration of mutawalli in case wakf deed does not provide for it, to the extent of one- tenth of the income of the wakf property
C. If the remuneration is too small, court can increase it upto one-tenth of the income of the wakf property
D. All of these statements are true
Ans: D
11. Right of pre-emption under Mahomedan law is_______.
A. Right of repurchase
B. Right of substitution
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
12. Which of the following is true for rules made under provisions of section 4 (1) of the Muslim Personal law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937?
A. They must be published in the Official Gazette
B. If they are published they will have the effect as if enacted in the Act
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
13. A power given to a legatee to appoint a successor is_______.
A. Valid under Shia law
B. Valid under Sunni law
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: D
14. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a gift to be valid under Mahomedan law?
A. It must be in writing under Shia law
B. It must be in writing under Sunni law
C. It must be witnessed by two persons if oral, under Shia law
D. None of these
Ans: D
15. Which of the following is one of the books of doctrine of Maliki School of Islamic Law?
A. Radd-al-Mukhtar
B. Al-Mukhtasar
C. Kitab-ul-umm
D. None of these
Ans: B
16. Seljuk Turks belonged to which of the following schools of Islamic Law?
A. Hanafi School
B. School of Ahmad ibn Hanbal
C. Maliki School
D. None of these
Ans: A
Code of Civil Procedure:
17. A, residing in Delhi beats B in Calcutta.
A. B may sue A in Calcutta
B. B may sue A in Delhi
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
18. A sues B for redemption of a mortgage alleged to have been executed in 1856 of 50 cawnies of land. B denies the genuineness of the mortgage, and alleges that 14 out of the 50 cawnies were mortgaged to him in 1853, and that the 14 and the remaining 36 cawnies were sold to him by A in 1855. The mortgage is not proved, and the suit is dismissed. A then sues B to redeem the 14 cawnies on the footing of the mortgagee of 1853.
A. The suit is barred
B. The suit is not barred
C. The suit may or may not be barred.
D. None of these
Ans. B
19. A suit for redemption of two out of three plots comprised in one mortgage:
A. is a bar to a subsequent suit for redemption of the third plot
B. is not a bar as it includes two different plots which should serve as concrete case for the redemption of the third
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. A
20. On 1 March 1905, A enters into an agreement with B, for the sale of his lands to B, the sale to be completed on 1 August 1905. A agreed that B shall pay part of the purchase-money on the date of the agreement, and that A shall on such payment being made, put B in possession of the land. B pays part of the purchase-money and A puts him in possession of the land. The sale is not completed on 1 August owing to certain differences between the parties. On the 15 August, A forcibly ejects B from the land, and enters into possession. Thereupon B sues A for possession but omits to sue for specific performance of the agreement for sale.
A. B can afterwards sue A for specific performance
B. B cannot afterwards sue A for specific performance
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
21. A agrees to sell, and B agrees to purchase, 200 bales of wool, B takes delivery of 170 bales and is ready and willing to take delivery of the remaining 30 bales, but A fails to deliver them, A sues B for the price of the 170 bales. B claims to set-off the damages sustained by him by reason of A’s failure to deliver the remaining bales.
A. B is not entitled to claim the set-off, as the claim arises out of the same transaction
B. B is entitled to claim the set-off, as the claim arises out of the same transaction
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
22. A sues B to establish his right to certain property. Pending the suit, B mortgages the property to C. A decree is then passed in favour A. B does not appeal from the decree. C, being desirous of appealing from the decree, applies to be made a party to the suit. The suit having terminated:
A. C should be joined as a party to the suit. He may however, appeal from the decree under s 146 as a person claiming under B within the meaning of that section
B. C should not be joined as a party to the suit. He may however, not appeal from the decree under s 146 as a person claiming under B within the meaning of that section
C. C should not be joined as a party to the suit. He may however, appeal from the decree under s 146 as a person claiming under B within the meaning of that section
D. None of these
Ans. C
23. Which of the following deals with place of institution of suit where local limits of jurisdiction of Courts are uncertain in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 15
B. Section 18
C. Section 13
D. Section 12
Ans. B
24. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality of the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts of 1999 and 2002:
(a) Delhi High Court Bar Association v. Union of India
(b) Supreme Court Advocate on Record v. Union of India
(c) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
25. Sweeping change introduced by Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2002 is with the object to:
(a) give more power to Civil Courts
(b) reduce the power of Civil Courts
(c) cut short delay in disposal of suit
(d) make provisions stringent.
Ans. (c)
Code of Criminal Procedure:
26. Which of the following statements hold true for cognizable offences?
I. The police officer needs to get a warrant for making an arrest
II. Offences for which special authority is given to special officers are not cognizable offences
III. It is possible to have partly non-cognizable offences
IV. The police officer can make arrest without warrant
V. Offences for which special authority is given to special officers are cognizable offences
A. I, II and III
B. II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I and V
Ans. B
27. A complaint under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Must be in writing
B. Must be in the prescribed format
C. Can include a report made by a police officer in certain circumstances
D. Must contain in verbatim all the ingredients of the offence
Ans. C
28. ___________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with territorial divisions.
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Ans. A
29. As per Code of Criminal Procedures, 1973 there are ________ classes of Executive magistrates.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. six
Ans. C
30. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that “a police officer is bound to register an F.I.R. upon commission of a cognizable offence under section 154 of Cr. P.C.”:
(a) Nand Kumar v. State of Chhattisgarh
(b) Kalyan v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Lalita Kumari v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
31. Abhishek is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place. As per Section 213 Cr. P.C.:
A. the charge needs to set out the manner in which the plan of theft was effected
B. the charge need not set out the manner in which the theft was effected
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans: C
32. What are the particulars which a registered medical practitioner must provide while preparing a report of the examination under Section 53 A Cr. PC.?
A. marks of injury, if any on the person of the accused
B. description of material taken from the person of the accused for DNA profiling
C. other material particulars in reasonable detail
Ans: D
33. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for assisting in the concealment or disposal of stolen property, knowing it to be stolen, which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 411
B. 412
C. 414
D. 417
Ans: C
34. In Section 84 Cr. PC. every claim or objection shall be inquired into by the Court in which it is preferred or made provided that:
A. any claim preferred or objection made within the period allowed by this sub section may, in the event of the death of the claimant or objector, be continued by his legal representative
B. if it is preferred or made in the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate, he may make it over for disposal to any Magistrate Subordinate to him
C. where at the time of issue of the proclamation the Court is satisfied, by affidavit or otherwise
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans: B
Indian Evidence Act:
35. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act provides the mode of using the former statements of a witness for the purpose of contradicting him?
A. Section 14
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. Section 17
Ans. B
36. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with confession otherwise relevant not to become irrelevant because of promise of secrecy, etc.?
A. Section 19
B. Section 20
C. Section 22
D. Section 29
Ans. D
37. Which of the following statements hold true for the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A. For the interpretation of sections Court can look to the relevant English Common Law
B. The Court can import principles of English Common Law if needed
C. The Act is not exhaustive and the Courts can admit evidence not admissible by the statue if it appears to them that the irregular evidence would throw a light upon the issue
D. The Evidence Act is binding on the Tribunals
Ans. A
38. In a case of divorce on grounds of cruelty, wife levelled charges of second marriage on the Husband. In evidence she submits the voter’s list. Which of the following statements will hold true for the case?
A. The electoral roll is conclusive evidence that the second marriage has taken place
B. The electoral roll is inadmissible unless prior permission of the court is received
C. The electoral roll is irrelevant as the ground of divorce is cruelty and not second marriage
D. The electoral roll is hearsay evidence and it cannot be accepted as conclusive evidence
Ans. D
39. Which of the following statements hold true for the evidence under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A. Because a portion of the evidence of a witness is not acceptable entire evidence can be rejected
B. Where the evidence is of conflicting nature, the evidence favouring the accused should be accepted
C. Witness can be branded as a liar and his testimony rejected outright if part of their statements are demonstrably incorrect or doubtful
D. The Courts must always apply the maxim falsus in uno falsus in omnibus
Ans. B
40. In a case between A and B, B tenders an irregular document as evidence which is known as irregular to both A and B-
A. A can point out the irregularity of the document at any point upto the actual declaration of judgement
B. In case A decides to use the document against B, B cannot urge the documents inadmissibility
C. A cannot point out the irregularity of the document as he knows the document to be irregular
D. B and A both cannot point out the irregularity of the document as the doctrine of estoppels will apply
Ans. B
41. Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 motive-
A. If particularly strong, can take place of proof
B. If present, are by itself incriminating circumstance
C. For commission of an offence is of particular importance only in cases of pure circumstantial evidence
D. Should be adequate
Ans. C
42. Which of the following statements hold true for the admissibility of identification of the accused through the Identification parade?
A. The evidence is substantive evidence
B. Delay in holding of the parade does not affect the reliability of the evidence
C. The number of dummies per accused person should ideally be in the ratio of 1:4 or 1:6
D. Absence of test identification parade in itself is fatal
Ans. C
Indian Penal Code:
43. Z attempts to horsewhip A, not much in such a manner as to cause a grievous hurt to A. A draws out a pistol. Z persists in the assault. A believing in good faith that he can by no means prevent himself from being horsewhipped, shoots Z dead.
A. A has committed murder
B. A has not committed murder
C. A has committed culpable homicide
D. both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
44. Abhijeet along with Balwinder and Charanjeet picks up a fight with Dheeraj. Abhijeet pulls out a gun on being provoked by Balwinder and Charanjeet to kill Dharinder who fires the shot at Dharminder but hits Ekram and causes his death. In this case:
A. Balwinder and Charanjeet can be convicted under Section 302, IPC read with Section 34, IPC
B. Abhijeet can be convicted under Section 302, IPC by the aid of Section 301, IPC
C. All the three accused can be convicted under Section 302, IPC by the aid of Section 301, IPC
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
45. Abetment of any offence, punishable with imprisonment, if the offence be not committed in consequence of the abetment is dealt under-
A. Section 114 of IPC
B. Section 115 of IPC
C. Section 116 of IPC
D. Section 117 of IPC
Ans. C
46. What is the minimum term of imprisonment in case of, at the time of committing robbery or dacoity, the offender uses any deadly weapon or causes grievous hurt to any person, he is punished with imprisonment of not less than:
A. four years under Section 397, IPC
B. five years under Section 397, IPC
C. six years under Section 397, IPC
D. seven years under Section 397, IPC
Ans. D
47. Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term of 2 years or upwards is dealt under-
A. Section 119B of IPC
B. Section 120B of IPC
C. Section 121B of IPC
D. Section 122B of IPC
Ans. B
48. Waging or attempting to wage war, or abetting the waging of war, against the Government of India is dealt under-
A. Section 121 of IPC
B. Section 122 of IPC
C. Section 123 of IPC
D. Section 124 of IPC
Ans. A
49. Collecting arms, etc., with the intention of waging war against the Government of India is dealt under-
A. Section 120 of IPC
B. Section 121 of IPC
C. Section 122 of IPC
D. Section 123 of IPC
Ans. C
Limitation Act:
50. ‘Implied Trust’ refers to which of the following?
A. Are such trusts as this law implies, merely from the existence of particular facts or fiduciary relation
B. It is one which is inferred from this word of an instrument or conduct of parties
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
51. ‘Constructive Trusts’ refers to which of the following?
A. It is not a trust
B. It is merely an obligation in the nature of trust
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
52. Trustees ‘De Son Tort’ refers to which of the following?
A. A person who wrongly or without right assumes the character of a trustee
B. He is a constituted trustee
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
53. What is ‘Resulting Trust’?
A. It is where property is effectually or incompletely conveyed
B. Where on a conveyance the beneficial interest in property is not completely disposed of and accordingly the property or disposed of beneficial in it reverts to the person making the conveyance
C. It arises by implication when namely the documents to convey property is legally void or conveys the property in trust property but deceases no trust or declares trust which fails or do not exhaust the property
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
54. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for the applicability of Section 10, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. There must be property which has become vested in a person in trust for a specific purpose
B. The suit must be against such persons or his legal representatives or assigns (not being assigns for valuable consideration
C. The suit must be for the purpose of following in the hands of such person the trust property or its proceeds or for an account of such property or proceeds
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
55. ‘Specific purpose’ refers to which of the following?
A. A purpose that is either actually or specifically designed in the terms in which the trust is created
B. A purpose which from the specified terms can be certainly affirmed
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
56. A resulting trust can arise in which of the following ways?
I. Where a donor or testator sets aside property from the general body of his estate and vests it in trustees upon certain trusts which on the face of them do not exhaust the whole of the property
II. Where a provision for a trust made by a settler or testator is in excess of what the trust itself can consume
III. Where a trust fails
IV. Where a provision made contravene any provision of law, i.e. are void
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. I, IV
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
57. Where a deed vested properties in trust in the defendant (I) firstly for the performance of certain charities out of the income and (II) secondly for the division of the surplus amongst the plaintiffs in certain shares which of the two is a trust for a specific purpose within Section 10, Limitation Act, 1963?
A. I
B. II
C. both (I) and (II)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
58. Under Section 11, Limitation Act, 1963, no rule of limitation in force in the State of Jammu and Kashmir or in a foreign country shall be a defence to a suit instituted in the said territories on an contract entered into in that State or in a foreign country unless _________
A. A rule has extinguished the contact
B. The parties where domiciled in that State or in the foreign country during the period prescribed by such rule
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
59. Section 11, Limitation Act, 1963 recognises the defence based on a foreign rule of limitation only to which of the following cases?
A. Where the foreign law has extinguished only the remedy
B. Where the foreign law has extinguished the contract itself
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
Transfer of Property Act:
60. A charge can be enforced against:
A. A transferee of the property, who does not have notice of the charge
B. A transferee of the property who is a gratuitous transferee
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
Ans. (C)
61. A creation of charge:
A. Must be in writing
B. Must be in writing if the value of property is more than Rs.100
C. Cannot be in writing
D. Must be registered if in writing, and the value of property is more than Rs.100
Ans. (D)
62. A is owner of a cowshed and a land adjacent to the cowshed. He sells the cow shed to B, with an understanding that B can continue to graze cattle on A’s land. The maximum capacity of the cow shed is for 30 cows. B brought in 15 cows and started using the land. Later on B increased the capacity of cowshed to 60 cows. Which of the following statements will apply?
A. B can continue to use land for grazing by 60 cows
B. B can only use the land for grazing by 15 cows
C. B can only use the land for grazing by 30 cows
D. B can continue to use the land for grazing of as many cows as he likes, as long as the grass is sufficient for the purpose
Ans. (C)
63. A lease of immovable property determines under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when ____________.
A. By implied surrender
B. By efflux of time, in case time is not limited thereby
C. When time is limited unconditionally on the happening of some event, till such event happens
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
64. A notice by the landlord to the tenant asking him to vacate the premises without specifying that the tenancy has been terminated:
A. Is valid under the provisions of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882
B. Is invalid under the provisions of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882
C. May be valid under the provisions of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 depending on the content of the notice
D. May be valid under the provisions of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 depending on the intention of the landlord
Ans. (A)
65. A creation of charge:
A. Must be in writing
B. Must be in writing if the value of property is more than Rs.100
C. Cannot be in writing
D. Must be registered if in writing, and the value of property is more than Rs.100
Ans: D
Commercial Law:
66. When did the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 came into force?
A. 1st October, 1932
B. 2nd October, 1932
C. 3rd October, 1932
D. 4th October, 1932
Ans: A
67. Which of the following is the very purpose of deferring Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 to come into force from 1-10-1933?
A. It was to give sufficient time to the registered firms to enable them to bring suits
B. It was to give sufficient time to the unregistered firms to get themselves registered in order to enable them to bring suits
C. It was to give sufficient time to the unregistered firms to enable them to bring suits
D. None of these
Ans: B
68. ‘Business’ in section 1, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 includes every_______.
A. Trade
B. Occupation
C. Profession
D. All of these
Ans: D
69. Sub-clause (1) of section 58 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is based on which of the following section of the Registration of Business Names Act, 1916 (6 and 7 George V. C. 58)?
A. Section 1
B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Ans: C
70. A firm will not be treated as registered before the end of the previous year, for the purpose of which of the following rules of the Income Tax Act where although an application for its registration under section 58 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 was made before the end of such previous year it was actually registered in accordance with section 59 of the same Act only after the end of such year?
A. Rule 2(a)
B. Rule 2(b)
C. Rule 2(c)
D. Rule 2(d)
Ans: B
Specific Relief Act:
71. Where the deed is not presented for registration by the purchaser of immovable property, which of the following is applicable?
A. The vendor can be compelled to execute a new deed and register the deed by obtaining specific performance
B. The purchaser can be compelled to present the deed for registration through specific performance
C. The vendor can compel the purchaser to register the deed by obtaining specific performance
D. None of these
Ans: A
72. Where the daughters of the vendor-defendant acquired pending a suit of specific performance, rights as coparceners by virtue Andhra Pradesh Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 1986 their rights will be subject to which of the following?
A. Agreement of sale
B. Result of such a suit
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
Specific Relief Act:
73. Whose responsibility is it to see that the motive behind litigation is not used as an instrument of oppression to have an unfair advantage to the plaintiff?
A. Lawyer
B. Contracting parties
C. The Court
D. None of these
Ans. C
74. Which of the following view regarding whether a suit of specific performance would lie to enforce an award under the Arbitration Act, 1940 received statutory recognition in s. 43, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. The procedure for enforcing an award was only under s. 12, Specific Relief Act, 1963
B. The procedure for enforcing an award was only under s. 13, Specific Relief Act, 1963
C. The procedure for enforcing an award was only under s. 14, Specific Relief Act, 1963
D. None of these
Ans. C
75. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Under clause (a) of s.8, Specific Relief act, 1963, the onus is on the plaintiff to prove fiduciary relationship
B. Under clause (d) of s.8, Specific Relief act, 1963, the onus is on the plaintiff to prove wrongful transfer
C. The Explanation under s.8, Specific Relief act, 1963 deals with the onus under clause (b) and (c) which are placed upon the defendant, who has to prove that the compensation in money would be adequate relief and that it would not be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage caused by the loss of the movable property
D. All of these
Ans. D
76. Which of the following statements are true in the event of the dismissal of a suit under s. 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. The dismissal does not raise any presumption that the defendant was, in fact, in possession
B. The dismissal operates as legal bar against aggrieved party to pursue his remedy of redelivery
D. None of these
Ans. C
77. Which of the following statements are true in case granting specific relief?
A. If the properties are scattered at different place, specific relief cannot be granted
B. Law requires the properties to be sold to be situated in one place
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. D
78. Which of the following statement is true when such a transferee was already in possession of a joint property and then executed an agreement of sale if the interest of one joint owner of the property?
A. The agreement is litigious
B. His possession forbidden by the law, as to defeat specific performance
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. D
79. Where the deed is not presented for registration by the purchaser of immovable property, which of the following is applicable?
A. The vendor can be compelled to execute a new deed and register the deed by obtaining specific performance
B. The purchaser can be compelled to present the deed for registration through specific performance
C. The vendor can compel the purchaser to register the deed by obtaining specific performance
D. None of these
Ans: A
80. Where the daughters of the vendor-defendant acquired pending a suit of specific performance, rights as coparceners by virtue Andhra Pradesh Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 1986 their rights will be subject to which of the following?
A. Agreement of sale
B. Result of such a suit
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
81. Where an apparent agreement for the transfer of properly is really a financial arrangement or made as security for repayment of debt or outstanding amount, specific performance of such agreement cannot be granted; the Court may rather grant return of the debt or the amount outstanding. Which of the following is an exception to this rule?
I. If a loan has been already been made in consideration of the defendant’s promise to execute a mortgage or other security, the Court will decree specific performance of the agreement
II. If the agreement to lend is collateral to the main contract and that contract is specifically enforceable, the agreement to lend may also be specifically enforceable
III. If the agreement is for the grant of an annuity
IV. If the agreement is for paying to a third person in circumstances where the plaintiff can only recover nominal damage for breach of contract
V. If a person has entered into an indemnity agreement to relieve a debtor by undertaking to discharge the debt on his behalf (and not merely to merely to reimburse the debtor after he has paid the debt), the Court will specifically enforce the obligation by ordering the indemnifying party to pay the debt, provided that the debt has become a present and enforceable liability
A. I, III
B. I, II, V
C. II, III, V
D. All of these
Ans: D
Contract Act:
82. ______________ describes that an agreement is not enforceable by law is void.
A. Section 2 (f) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
B. Section 2 (g) of Indian Contract Act, 1872
C. Section 2 (h) of Indian Contract Act, 1872
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
83. A agrees to buy from B a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of the bargain, though neither party was aware of the fact.
A. The agreement cannot be voided
B. The agreement is void
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
84. A agrees to let her daughter on hire to B for concubinage.
A. The agreement is void, because it is immoral, as the letting is punishable under the Indian Penal Code (45 to 1860)
B. The agreement is not void, because it is not immoral, though the letting may not be punishable under the Indian Penal Code (45 to 1860)
C. The agreement is void, because it is immoral, though the letting may not be punishable under the Indian Penal Code (45 to 1860)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
85. A agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return. The ship is sunk.
A. The contract cannot be enforced when the ship sinks
B. The contract can be enforced when the ship sinks
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
86. Contract of novation is:
A. A new contract that is enforced alongside an existing one, usually retaining the same rights and liabilities, as when one partner in a partnership is replaced by another
B. A new contract that replaces an existing one, without retaining the same rights and liabilities, as when one partner in a partnership is replaced by another
C. A new contract that replaces an existing one, usually retaining the same rights and liabilities, as when one partner in a partnership is replaced by another
D. None of these
Ans: C
Law of Succession:
87. The person who is related to another wholly through males but by half-blood will be called under The Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
A. Cognate
B. Agnate
C. Nambudri
D. None of the above
Ans. B
88. Which of the following persons will come under Marumakkattayam law as per Section 3 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
I. Those who would have been governed by The Travancore Ezhava Act of 1100
II. Those who would have been governed by The Cochin Nayar Act of 1113
III. Those who would have been governed by The Cochin Nambudri Act, 1113
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. A
89. Which of the followings will come under Nambudri law as per section 3 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
I. Those who would have been governed by The Madras Nambudri Act, 1932
II. Those who would have been governed by The Travancore Kshatriya Act of 1108
III. Those who would have been governed by The Travancore Malaya Brahmin Act of 1106
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I only
Ans. C
Law of Trusts:
90. Which of the following territories are outside the scope of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
B. Nagaland
C. Sikkim
D. Goa
Ans: A
91. Which of the followings trusts are valid under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. A trust for reviving and promoting interest in sati practice
B. A trust for reviving and encouraging child marriages, and for asking government to change the legislature for the same
C. The trust created on immovable property under the oral will of the deceased, for the purpose of maintaining the children of the deceased
D. The trust created on a funeral van, to be used for the purpose of charity. The possession was transferred to trustees, but written instrument was not made.
Ans: D
92. A valid trust under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 ______.
A. Can be created for the benefit of minors
B. Can be created by a minor
C. Either or both A and B
D. Either A nor B
Ans: C
93. Which of the following statements does not hold true under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. A minor can be a trustee of a trust
B. A valid trust can be created with ambiguous beneficiaries
C. A transfer by A to a trustee, a certain property with indication to use bulk of it for maintenance of an eldest child will create a valid trust
D. None of these
Ans: C
Hindu Law:
94. For establishing domicile the Supreme Court has established that the residence be continuous but it ________ be indefinite.
A. Must, need not
B. Need not, must
C. May, must
D. Must, may
Ans: B
95. It is a well-established proposition that a person_______ have a home but he__________ a domicile.
A. Must, need not have
B. Need not, cannot be without
C. Must, can be without
D. Can, cannot have
Ans: B
Law of Torts:
96. In case of damage caused by escape of ferocious animals the person having control will be liable for any damage caused:
A. only on proof of negligence
B. even without proof of negligence
C. only on proof of malice
D. on proof of animal’s nature
Ans: D
97. Identify the situation out of the following in which the defendant owes no duty to take care against the plaintiff:
A. where the plaintiff and defendant are neighbours
B. where the defendant has sold a house to the plaintiff
C. where the plaintiff himself has no legal duty towards the defendant
D. where the plaintiff and the defendant are business partners
Ans: D
98. In which one of the following situations ‘A’ will be liable for defamation?
‘A’ writes a letter containing a defamatory matter about ‘B’ and;
A. keeps it in a sealed envelope with himself
B. sends it in a sealed envelope to ‘B’ but it is opened by his (A’s) butler
C. sends it in a sealed envelope to ‘B’ but it is opened by B’s father
D. sends it in sealed envelope to B’s wife
Ans: D
99. The defendants by digging a coalpit in the land intercepted the water which affected the plaintiff’s well at a distance of about one mile. The plaintiff brought a suit for a damages against the defendants.
Which one of the following maxims is applicable in the aforesaid case?
A. Damnun sine injuria
B. Injuria sine damno
C. Res ips loquitur
D. Volenti non fit njuria
Ans: A
100. A tort significantly differs from a crime as to
A. who is the party that starts the lawsuit
B. whether there is a statute
C. how bad the damage is
D. the nature of the harm
Ans: A
101. The principle underlying the development of tort law involves
A. social responsibility
B. compensation
C. deterrence
D. punishment
Ans: B
General Knowledge (GK):
102. A colorblind person cannot differentiate between colours:
(a) Yellow and Green
(b) Black and Blue
(c) Red and Green
(d) Blue and Green.
Ans. (c)
103. An online discussion group that allows direct “live” communication is known as
A. Web crawler
B. chat group
C. regional service provider
D. hyperlink
Ans: B
104. Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of different approaches to identify and eliminate spam?
A. Directory search
B. Anti-spam program
C. Web server
D. Web storefront creation package
Ans: B
105. The main circuit-board of the system unit is the_____
A. computer program
B. control unit
C. motherboard
D. RAM
Ans: C
106. New Public Management stands for
1. Shift form conventional public policy to cost effectiveness
2. Cluster rather than pyramids of organization in structural frameworks
3. Flexible and adaptive operational systems
4. Rigid planning and conventional bureaucratic hierarchy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Ans: C
107. An accurate clock shows 12 o’clock in the noon. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 5 o’clock on the same evening?
A. 150°
B. 140°
C. 125°
D. 120°
Ans: A
108. Overseas citizens of India (as per overseas Citizenship of India Scheme as operational from December 2005) shall not be entitled to
A. multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa to India
B. exemption from reporting to police authorities for any length of stay in India
C. parity with NRI’s in financial, economic and educational fields except in the question of agricultural of plantation properties
D. voting rights in India
Ans: D
109. Chadragupta Maurya was ____
A. An autocrat
B. A Statesman
C. A liberal ruler
D. An enlightened despot
Ans: D
110. Who was the author of Kumarasambhava?
A. Bhasya
B. Shudraka
C. Kalidas
D. Harisena
Ans: C
111. In spite of her virtues Razia was not successful because
A. She married Altuniya
B. She used to behave like a man
C. Of her orthodox-religious belief
D. Nobles disliked the rule of a woman
Ans: D
112. The great exponent of ‘Nirgun School’ was
A. Tulsidas
B. Surdas
C. Kabir
D. Mirabai
Ans: C
113. Which chronological order of Babur’s battles in India is correct?
A. Panipat, Ghaghara, Chanderi, Khanuah
B. Panipat, Chanderi, Khanuah, Ghaghara
C. Panipat, Khanuah, Chanderi, Ghaghara
D. Panipat, Khanuah, Ghaghara, Chanderi
Ans: C
114. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:
Famous shrine – Location
1. Tabo monastery and temple complex – Spiti Valley
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako – Zanskar Valley
3. Alchi temple complex – Ladakh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
115. Who wrote Poverty and Un-British Rule in India:
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) Charles Wood
(d) M.N. Roy.
Ans. (a)
116. The nearest planet to the sun is:
(a) Saturn
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury.
Ans. (d)
117. Who is called the first law officer of the country:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Solicitor-General of India
(c) Attorney-General of India
(d) Advocate-General of India.
Ans. (c)
118. In Preamble of the Constitution, one of the following is in correct order:
(i) Socialist
(ii) Democratic
(iii) Sovereign
(iv) Secular
(a) (iv), (i), (iii) and (ii)
(b) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii) and (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (iv) and (ii)
Ans. (d)
119. Which is the first State of the country to establish cashless system for distribution of food grains:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat.
Ans. (d)
120. Consider the following statements:
1. All North Eastern States share boundary with foreign countries.
2. Arunachal Pradesh is the only State which shares boundary with three countries.
Select the correct answer from the following codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2.
Ans. (d)
121. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the country’s longest (1344 m) Cable Bridge on which river:
(a) Narmada
(b) Yamuna
(c) Ganga
(d) Brahmaputra.
Ans. (a)
122. Which of the following Indian Forces has recently launched operation ‘Sard Hawa’ at the Western international border of Rajasthan:
(a) Border Security Force
(b) Central Reserve Police Force
(c) Indian Army
(d) Central Industrial Police Force.
Ans. (a)
123. Which country is the world’s largest producer of “illicit opium” for the pharmaceutical trade:
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal.
Ans. (a)
124. Automated Teller Machines (ATM) which can be operated independently by a visually impaired person are known as:
(a) White Label ATM
(b) Offline ATM
(c) Talking ATM
(d) Biometric ATM.
Ans. (c)
125. Who has won the Nobel Prize 2015 in Economic Sciences for his analysis of consumption, poverty and welfare:
(a) Malcolm Marshall
(b) Angus Deaton
(c) Jean Tirole
(d) Svetlana Alexievich.
Ans. (b)
126. Which country became the 162nd member of WTO:
(a) Russia
(b) Vanuatu
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Australia.
Ans. (c)
127. Which among the following countries will hold the SAARC Summit in 2016:
(a) India
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Pakistan
(d) Maldives.
Ans. (c)
128. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of:
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses
Ans. (b)