GK questions and answers on Indian Evidence Act especially compiled for law students!
1. Section 8, Indian Evidence Act embodies which of the following rule?
A. that the testimony of alibi is allowable when it goes to the root of the matter concerning the commission of a crime
B. that the testimony of codicil is allowable when it goes to the root of the matter concerning the commission of a crime
C. that the testimony of res gestae is allowable when it goes to the root of the matter concerning the commission of a crime
D. none of them
Ans. C
2. Which of the following section cannot be invoked for the purpose of allowing a confession in respect of which there is a bar under Section 24, 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 39, Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 40, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 41, Indian Evidence Act
D. all of them
Ans. A
3. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with a fact which constitutes motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct?
A. Section 23
B. Section 16
C. Section 1
D. Section 8
Ans. D
4. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with admissions by person expressly referred to by party to suit?
A. Section 12
B. Section 20
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans. B
5. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with birth during marriage, conclusive proof of legitimacy?
A. Section 111
B. Section 112
C. Section 113
D. Section 116
Ans. B
6. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with entries in books of account when relevant?
A. Section 34
B. Section 28
C. Section 39
D. Section 32
Ans. A
7. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with evidence as to application language to one of two set of facts, to neither of which the whole correctly applies?
A. Section 94
B. Section 97
C. Section 86
D. Section 82
Ans. B
8. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with information as to commission of offences?
A. Section 155
B. Section 152
C. Section 125
D. Section 111
Ans. C
9. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with leading questions?
A. Section 139
B. Section 144
C. Section 141
D. Section 163
Ans. C
10. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with opinion as to existence of right or custom, when relevant?
A. Section 42
B. Section 44
C. Section 38
D. Section 48
Ans. D
11. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to electronic records and digital signatures?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 85-B
D. Section 18
Ans. C
12. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with proof as to verification of digital signature?
A. Section 88-A
B. Section 76-B
C. Section 93-A
D. Section 73-A
Ans. D
13. A desires a Court to give judgment that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B, by reason of facts which he asserts, and which B denies, to be true. Applying Section 101, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot prove the existence of those facts
B. A need not prove the existence of those facts
C. A must prove the existence of those facts
D. none of them
Ans. C
14. A is accused before the Court of Session of having given false evidence before B, a Magistrate, Applying Section 121, Indian Evidence Act:
A. B can be asked what A said
B. B cannot be asked what A said, except upon the special order of the any Court
C. B cannot be asked what A said, except upon the special order of the superior Court
D. all of them
Ans. C
15. A is tried for the murder of B by poison. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. the fact that, before the death of B, B already had poison in his possession
B. the fact that, before the death of B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. B
16. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with secondary evidence?
A. Section 63
B. Section 29
C. Section 60
D. Section 44
Ans. A
17. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the exclusiveness and conclusiveness of documentary evidence?
A. Section 89 and 91
B. Section 90 and 93
C. Section 91 and 92
D. Section 92 and 94
Ans. C
18. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with what matters may be proved in connection with proved statement relevant under section 32 or 33?
A. Section 156
B. Section 152
C. Section 157
D. Section 158
Ans. D
19. Who prepared the Draft Bill of the Indian Evidence Act and introduced in the legislative Council?
A. Sir Henry Sumner Maine
B. Dr. C. Rajgopalchari
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Pt. Jawarhar Lal Nehru
Ans. A
20. A orders goods of B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot proved that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired
B. A does not need to show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired
C. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired
D. none of them
Ans. C
21. A statement of a witness on the question of relationship may be admissible under Section 50, Indian Evidence Act or:
A. Section 32 (3), Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 32 (4), Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 32 (5), Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 32 (6), Indian Evidence Act
Ans. C
22. A sues B for trespass on his land. B alleges the existence of a public right of way over the land, which A denies. Applying Section 42, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?
A. the existence of a decree in favour of the defendant in a suit by A against C for a trespass on the same land, in which C alleged the existence of the same right of way, is relevant, and is a conclusive proof that the right of way exists
B. the existence of a decree in favour of the defendant in a suit by A against C for a trespass on the same land, in which C alleged the existence of the same right of way, is irrelevant, and it is not a conclusive proof that the right of way exists
C. the existence of a decree in favour of the defendant in a suit by A against C for a trespass on the same land, in which C alleged the existence of the same right of way, is relevant, but it is not conclusive proof that the right of way exists
D. none of them
Ans. C
23. Estoppels can be:
A. by record
B. by deed
C. in pais
D. all of them
Ans. D
24. According to Section 24, Indian Evidence Act, when is the confession of an accused irrelevant?
A. if it is caused by inducement
B. if it is caused by threat
C. if it is caused by promise
D. all of them
Ans. D
25. Any statement of the accused to a police officer, leading to the discovery of the fact, must be recorded by the police officer as proof of such statement and for its admissibility under:
A. Section 27, Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 29, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 30, Indian Evidence Act
D. none of them
Ans. A
26. Section 8, Indian Evidence Act deals with which of the following aspects?
A. a fact which shows or constitutes a motive for any fact in issue or relevant fact
B. the acts constituting preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact
C. the conduct of the person either previous or subsequent to the offence
D. all of them
Ans. D
27. The general ground of reception under Section 35, Indian Evidence Act is:
A. that the statements and entries have been made by authorised agents of the public in the course of official duty
B. that facts recorded are of public interest or notoriety
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
28. Which of the following kind of maps or charts are mentioned in Section 36, Indian Evidence Act?
A. maps and charts generally offered for public sale
B. maps or plans made under the authority of Government
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
29. The meaning of the maxim “Affirmanti non neganti incumbit probatio” is:
A. the burden of proof does rests upon him who affirms, but upon him who denies
B. the burden of proof rests upon him who affirms, not upon him who denies
C. the burden of proof rests upon the judiciary
D. none of them
Ans. B
30. The purpose of Section 57(6) and 85 is to:
A. cut down recording of trial
B. cut down recording of evidence
C. cut down recording of confession
D. all of them
Ans. B
31. The question is, whether A committed a crime. Applying Section 11, Indian Evidence Act which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. the circumstances are such that the crime must have been committed either by A, B, C or D
B. fact which shows that the crime could have been committed by no one else and that it was not committed by either B, C or D
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
32. The Supreme Court observed that the principle of res judicata is based:
A. on the need of giving finality to judicial decision
B. on the need of giving shape to a conspiracy
C. on the need of executing a warrant
D. none of them
Ans. A
33. To which of the following clause of Section 63, Indian Evidence Act, copies by photography, lithography, cyclostyle and carbon copies belong?
A. clause 2
B. clause 3
C. clause 4
D. clause 5
Ans. A
34. To which of the following section does the object of Section 27, Indian Evidence Act, provided as a proviso?
A. Section 32, Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 25, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 26, Indian Evidence Act
D. both (B) and (C)
Ans. D
35. To which of the following type of case Section 14 does not apply?
A. where a particular act is more or less criminal or culpable according to the state of mind or feeling of the person who does it
B. where the question is of the guilt or innocence of the accused, which depends on actual facts and not upon the state of mind or feeling
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of them
Ans. A
36. Under which section of the Indian Divorce Act, it was held that the English rule is to be applied in India?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Ans. A
37. What does the term book in Section 34 of the Indian Evidence Act means?
A. means a collection of sheets of paper bound together with the intention that such binding shall be permanent,
B. means papers used collectively in one volume,
C. means unbound paper, in whatever quantity, though filled up with one continuous account
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
38. What is disposition?
I. includes trust only
II. includes covenant only
III. includes agreement only
IV. includes arrangement only
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
39. Which is the most important branch adjectival law?
A. The Law of Evidence
B. Code of Criminal Procedure
C. The Indian Penal Code
D. all of them
Ans. A
40. Which of the following condition must be satisfied for the application of Section 73, Indian Evidence Act?
A. the writing with which comparison is to be made or otherwise called standard writing, should be either admitted by the person alleged to have made the writing or should be proved to have been written by the person to whom it is attributed
B. the writing to be compared with the standard one must be shown to have been written by the same person, i.e. the writing itself must state or indicate it was written by that person
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
41. Which of the following Evidence Act governs the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Evidence Act [(7 of 1977) Samrat]
B. Evidence Act [(10 of 1977) Samrat]
C. Evidence Act [(13 of 1977) Samrat]
D. Evidence Act [(15 of 1977) Samrat]
Ans. C
42. Which of the following ingredients must exist before a statement of the accused persons can be taken into consideration against the other accused under Section 30, Indian Evidence Act?
I. there must be a joint trial for the same offence
II. it must be a confession
III. the confession of guilt must effect himself and others, i.e. implicate the maker substantially to the same extent as the other accused
IV. the confession of guilt must be duly proved
A. I, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
43. Which of the following is not forbidden for use under Section 25, Indian Evidence Act?
A. confession made to the police officer
B. statement made to the police officer
C. incriminating statements by the accused to the police officer
D. all of them
Ans. B
44. Which of the following is true about a Judge using his personal knowledge in a case under Section 57, Indian Evidence Act?
A. A Judge can rely on the information gained by him from the cases which he has heard during his service
B. A Judge cannot decide on taking cognizance of an offence, based on his personal knowledge
C. The judge cannot make use of facts which came to him from other sources
D. all of them
Ans. D
45. Which of the following is true of ‘motive’ in Section 8, Indian Evidence Act?
A. mere existence of motive by itself is not an incriminating circumstance
B. it cannot give rise to an inference of guilt
C. it cannot form basis of conviction
D. all of them
Ans. D
46. Which of the following is true of an admission?
A. the law does not permit an admission to be truncated and taken a piece meal
B. it should be read as whole
C. it should be rejected as a whole
D. all of them
Ans. D
47. Which of the following is true of the words, “judicial proceedings” in the Indian Evidence Act?
A. the words, “judicial proceedings” is not defined in this Act, but under Section 5(1) of the Cr. PC, 1973, it includes any proceedings in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath
B. the words, “judicial proceedings” is not defined in this Act, but under Section 4(1) of the Cr. PC, 1973, it includes any proceedings in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath
C. the words, “judicial proceedings” is not defined in this Act, but under Section 3(1) of the Cr. PC, 1973, it includes any proceedings in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath
D. the words, “judicial proceedings” is not defined in this Act, but under Section 2(1) of the Cr. PC, 1973, it includes any proceedings in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath
Ans. D
48. Which of the following section of T.P is similar in principle to Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 39
B. Section 40
C. Section 41
D. Section 45
Ans. C
49. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with evidence as to meaning of illegible characters, etc.?
A. Section 94
B. Section 80
C. Section 98
D. Section 82
Ans. C
50. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts?
A. Section 9
B. Section 6
C. Section 2
D. Section 8
Ans. A
51. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with opinion as to usages, tenets, etc., when relevant?
A. Section 49
B. Section 46
C. Section 52
D. Section 58
Ans. A
52. Which of the following admissions are contemplated under this section:
I. admissions in the pleadings (Order VIII, Rule 5, C.P.C) or by the way of answers to the interrogatories (Order XI, Rule 22, C.P.C)
II. admissions which can be implied from the pleadings
III. admissions by way of agreement in writing before the hearing, or by giving notice to admit (Order XII. C.P.C)
IV. admissions by a party or his lawyer at the time of hearing
A. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
53. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to Digital Signature Certificates?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 85-C
Ans. D
54. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with proof of admissions against persons making them and by or on their behalf?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 21
D. Section 18
Ans. C
55. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with proof of documents by primary evidence?
A. Section 61
B. Section 64
C. Section 59
D. Section 29
Ans. B
56. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with proof of cession of territory?
A. Section 120
B. Section 156
C. Section 113
D. Section 125
Ans. C
57. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with professional communications?
A. Section 132
B. Section 127
C. Section 102
D. Section 126
Ans. D
58. What do you understand by presumption?
I. a legal or factual assumption drawn from the existence of certain facts
II. is the evidence of things not seen; where from an apparent effect, you may infer a probable cause
III. a presumption is a conclusion or inference as to the truth of some fact in question, drawn from some other fact judicially noticed or proved or admitted to be true
IV. is a rule indicating the stage of shifting of the burden of proof. From a certain fact or facts the Court can draw an inference and that would remain until such inference is either disproved or dispelled
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
Ans. D
59. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with public documents?
A. Section 74
B. Section 78
C. Section 80
D. Section 81
Ans. A
60. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with refreshing memory and when witness may use copy of document to refresh memory?
A. Section 159
B. Section 152
C. Section 157
D. Section 160
Ans. A
61. The protection under section 126 of Evidence Act extends to:
(a) communication made in furtherance of any illegal design
(b) any fact observed showing the communication of any offence or fraud committed since commencement of employment
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (d)
62. An accomplice is a competent witness:
(a) under section 118 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 119 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 133 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 132 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (c)
63. An accomplice is a person:
(a) who participates in the commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged
(b) who is a prefended confederate
(c) who is an informer
(d) all the above
(e) both (a) & (b).
Ans. (a)
64. Testimony of an accomplice before it is accepted & acted upon:
(a) must be corroborated from the testimony of another accomplice
(b) must be corroborated from an independent source
(c) need not be corroborated at all
(d) either (a) or (c).
Ans. (b)
65. Question as to admissibility of evidence:
(a) should be decided as they arise
(b) should be reserved until judgment
(c) may be decided as they arise or may be reserved until judgment
(d) either (b) or (c).
Ans. (a)
66. Examination in chief of a witness:
(a) shall be by the party calling the witness
(b) shall be by the adverse party
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (a)
67. Re-examination of a witness:
(a) shall be by the party calling the witness
(b) shall be by the adverse party
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (a)
68. Re-examination of a witness can be done:
(a) after examination in chief but before cross- examination
(b) after examination chief and after cross- examination
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (b)
69. Cross-examination of a witness:
(a) must relate to relevant facts and has to be confined to what the witness testified in examination in chief
(b) must relate to relevant facts but need not be confined to what the witness testified in examination in chief
(c) may not relate to relevant facts but must relate to what the witness testified in examination in chief
(d) may not relate to relevant facts & may not be confined to what the witness testified in examination in chief.
Ans. (b)
70. Re-examination of a witness:
(a) can be for the purposes of filling what is left-over in examination in chief
(b) can be for the purposes of explaining the matters referred to in cross-examination
(c) can be for the purposes of explaining the matters referred to in the examination in chief
(d) all the above.
Ans. (b)
71. After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party has a:
(a) right to further cross-examine the witness afresh in general
(b) has no right to further cross examine the witness
(c) right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new matter is introduced in the re-examination
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
72. During re-examination of a witness:
(a) a new matter can be introduced as a matter of right generally
(b) a new matter can be introduced only with the permission of the court
(c) no new matter can be introduced at all
(d) either (a) or (c).
Ans. (b)
73. A co-defendant in a case:
(a) cannot be cross-examined by another co- defendant under any circumstance
(b) can be cross-examined by another co- defendant if their interests are identical
(c) can be cross-examined by another co- defendant when their interests adverse to each other
(d) can be cross-examined by another co- defendant as a matter of right.
Ans. (c)
74. Leading questions can be asked during:
(a) examination in chief
(b) cross-examination
(c) re-examination
(d) all the above.
Ans. (b)
75. Court can permit leading questions during examination in chief or re-examination:
(a) if they refer to the matters which are introductory
(b) if they refer to the matters which are undisputed
(c) if they refer to the matter which are sufficiently proved
(d) if they refer to either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (d)
76. What is parol contract?
A. A contract not entirely in writing
B. A contract in writing not under seal
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
77. When A stand while his right is being infringed by B, Applying Section 115, Indian Evidence Act, the rule of estoppels by the acquiescence applies under which of the following conditions:
A. B must be mistaken as to his legal rights
B. B must expend money or do some act on the faith of his mistaken belief
C. A must know his own rights and must know of B’s mistaken belief
D. All of them
Ans: D
78. Which Article of the Constitution provides a protection for an accused person charged with any offence stating that he shall not be compelled to be a witness against himself?
A. Article 17 (3) of the Constitution
B. Article 18 (3) of the Constitution
C. Article 19 (3) of the Constitution
D. Article 20 (3) of the Constitution
Ans: D
79. Which of the following can be treated as confession for the purpose of Section 27, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Confessions made under the provisions of Section 62, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1954
B. Confessions made under the provisions of Section 65, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1960
C. Confessions made under the provisions of Section 67, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1962
D. Confessions made under the provisions of Section 68, NDPS Act and Customs Act, 1965 187.
Ans: C
80. Which of the following has been adopted with verbal alterations from Section 149, Cr. P.C, 1861?
A. Section 26, Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 27, Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 28, Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 29, Indian Evidence Act
Ans: A
81. Which of the following is true for awarding the amount of damage by Court?
A. The amount of damages which the Court can award is, however, limited by its pecuniary jurisdiction
B. The Court can never grant a decree for a sum which exceeds the limits of its jurisdiction
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
82. Which of the following regulates the production of documents in Court?
A. Civil Procedure Code
B. Indian Penal Code
C. Criminal Procedure Code
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
83. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with admission by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit?
A. Section 19
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans: A
84. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with evidence as to application of language which can apply to one only of several persons?
A. Section 96
B. Section 80
C. Section 86
D. Section 82
Ans: A
85. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with official communications?
A. Section 163
B. Section 124
C. Section 187
D. Section 131
Ans: B
86. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to electronic agreements?
A. Section 12
B. Section 85-A
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
Ans: B
87. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of certain evidence for proving, in subsequent proceeding, the truth of facts therein stated?
A. Section 39
B. Section 36
C. Section 34
D. Section 33
Ans: D
88. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with witnesses to character?
A. Section 139
B. Section 140
C. Section 145
D. Section 163
Ans: B
89. A desires a Court to give judgment that B shall be punished for a crime which A says B has committed. Applying Section 101, Indian Evidence Act:
A. A cannot prove that B has committed the crime
B. A need not prove that B has committed the crime
C. A must prove that B has committed the crime
D. None of them
Ans: C
90. A sues B for Rs. 1,000 and shows entries in his account books showing B to be indebted to him to his amount. Applying Section 34, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?
A. The entries are relevant, sufficient, with other evidence, to prove the debt
B. The entries are relevant and are sufficient, without other evidence, to prove the debt
C. The entries are relevant, but are not sufficient, without other evidence, to prove the debt
D. None of them
Ans: C
91. A, on his trial before the Court of Session, says that a deposition was improperly taken by B, the Magistrate. Applying Section 121, Indian Evidence Act:
A. B can be compelled to answer questions as to this
B. B cannot be compelled to answer questions as to this, except upon the special order of any Court
C. B cannot be compelled to answer questions as to this, except upon the special order of a superior Court
D. All of them
Ans: C
92. Admissions on a plaintiff in the previous suit:
A. Is binding on him in a later proceeding
B. Can be disqualified in a later proceeding
C. Does not carry forward in a later proceeding
D. None of them
Ans: A
93. An accomplice evidence requires corroboration because:
A. He is a person of low character who has participated in the crime and is therefore likely to have no regard to the sanctity of his oath
B. He is interested in falsely destroying the facts in order to shift the guilt from himself
C. That he has the inducement of either a promised or implied pardon for his own part in the crime and is therefore likely to be biased in favour of the prosecution
D. All of them
Ans: D
94. As per Section 21, Indian Evidence Act, admissions cannot be proved by or on behalf of the person who makes them, or by representative in interest, except when:
A. It is of such a nature that, if the person making it were dead, it would be relevant as between third persons under Section 32, Indian Evidence Act
B. It consists of a statement of the existence of any state of mind or body made at or about the time when such a state of mind or body existed, and is accompanied by conduct rendering its falsehood improbable
C. It is relevant otherwise than as an admission
D. All of them
Ans: D
95. From which section of the Cr. PC under the Amended Act, 8 of 1869 is Section 27, Indian Evidence Act taken?
A. Section 150
B. Section 160
C. Section 170
D. Section 180
Ans: D
96. Opinion as to relationship under the main part of Section 50, Indian Evidence Act apply in considering the question of proceedings of which under of the following section of Cr.P.C as to the existence of the relationship of marriage between the parties?
A. Section 125
B. Section 177
C. Section 180
D. Section 182
Ans: A
97. Section 7, Indian Evidence Act provides for the admission of several classes of facts which are connected with the transaction under inquiry in particular modes which are:
I. As being the occasion or cause of a fact
II. As being its effect
III. As giving opportunity for its occurrence
IV. As constituting the state of things under which it happened
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. IV
D. All of them
Ans: D
98. The question is, whether A committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. Applying Section 11, Indian Evidence Act which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. The fact that, on that day A was at Lahore
B. The fact that, near the time when the crime was committed, A was at a distance from the place where it was committed
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
99. To render a document admissible which of the following conditions must be fulfilled under Section 35, Indian Evidence Act?
A. The entry that is relied on must be one in any public or other official book, register, or record
B. It must be an entry relating to a fact in issue or relevant fact
C. It must be made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty, or any other per son in performance of a duty specially enjoined by law
D. All of them
Ans: D
100. What is partial evidence?
A. It is that which goes to establish a detached fact in a series tending to the fact in dispute
B. It may be received, subject to be rejected, as incompetent, unless connected with the fact in dispute by proof of other facts
C. Both (A) or (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
101. Which of the following is an exception to Section 132, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 94 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
B. Section 95 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
C. Section 96 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
D. Section 97 of the Representation of People’s Act of 1951
Ans: A
102. Whenever a document is produced as primary or secondary evidence, it will be proved in the manner laid down in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
I. Section 67
II. Section 68
III. Section 69
IV. Section 70
V. Section 71
VI. Section 72
VII. Section 73
A. I, III, V and VII
B. II, III and VI
C. V, VI and VII
D. All of them
Ans: D
103. Which of the following is false?
A. A person who specifically avers that a document is a will cannot be allowed to say that it is not a will but a family arrangement
B. If a person chooses to accept a legacy under a will, he will be estopped from setting up a title contrary to its provision
C. A Hindu coparcener who took the property under a will of another coparcener and acted on the terms of the reference of the will and his transferees who bought the property with notice of his title, are estopped from questioning the will
D. None of them
Ans: D
104. Bond is:
A. An oral agreements between an issuer and investor
B. A paper evidence of a legal promise by the issuer to charge the investor on declared terms
C. It is a general relationship between any two beings
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
105. Which of the following is true of Section 71, Indian Evidence Act?
A. It enables the party to prove the document by other evidence when the attesting witness denies the execution of the document or does not recollect its execution
B. It a sort of safeguard introduced by the Legislature to the mandatory provisions of Section 68, where it is not possible to prove the execution of the will by calling attesting witnesses though alive
C. For the applicability of this section it would be incumbent on the party to call the attesting witness in compliance with Section 68
D. All of them
Ans: D