Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and answers on the constitution of India especially compiled for school, college and law students!
1. “Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden” is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 14
B. Article 15
C. Article 16
D. Article 17
Ans. D
2. Article 18 of the Indian Constitution gives the provision of ‘Abolition’ of Titles’. Which of the following are the provisions under Abolition of Titles?
A. No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the state
B. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign state
C. No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign state
D. All of them
Ans. D
3. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides ‘Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.’ to Indian citizens?
A. Article 18 (2)
B. Article 18 (1)
C. Article 19
D. Article 20
Ans. C
4. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution are conferred on:
A. Indian citizens
B. All persons living within Indian Territory
C. Foreigners also
D. All of them
Ans. A
5. Which of the following statements regarding nature of the rights that are guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is confined to what are known as civil rights as distinguished from political rights such as the right to vote or to hold any political office, or the privileges of a chamber of the legislation.
II. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution refers to what are known as natural or common law rights as distinguished from rights which are created by a statute and must be exercised subject to conditions imposed by it.
III. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution does not include the right to life.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
6. In determining the substantive reasonableness, the Court has to take into consideration various factors. Which of the following points have to be satisfied in order to adjudge the restriction to be ‘reasonable’?
A. The restriction must have a rational connection with the object sought to be achieved by the law
B. The restriction imposed must not be in excess of the mischief sought to be prevented or the object sought to be achieved by the law
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. C
7. Which of the following principles and guidelines should be kept in mind for considering the constitutionality of a statutory provision upon a challenge on the alleged vice of unreasonableness of the restriction imposed by it?
A. The restriction sought to be imposed on the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution must not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature so as to go beyond the requirement of felt need of the society and object sought to be achieved
B. There must be a direct and proximate nexus or a reasonable connection between the restriction imposed and the object sought to be achieved
C. No abstract or fixed principle can be laid down which may have universal application in all cases
D. All of them
Ans. D
8. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of the Press is/are found to be correct?
I. This freedom cannot be claimed by a newspaper or other publication run by a non-citizen.
II. The freedom of Press, under our Constitution, is not higher than the freedom of an ordinary citizen is subject to the same limitations as are imposed by Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution and to those limitations only.
A. Both are correct
B. Both are incorrect
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. A
9. Which of the following Amendment Acts empowers the Court to adjudge the reasonableness of a restriction imposed even on the right guaranteed by Article 19(1) A of the Indian Constitution?
A. First Amendment Act
B. Second Amendment Act
C. Third Amendment Act
D. Fourth Amendment Act
Ans. A
10. Clause (1) B. of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of citizens to meet with each other in any number provided the assembly is
A. Peaceable
B. Unarmed
C. Large
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
11. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of Association is/are found to be correct?
I. The right guaranteed by 19 (1) C is an ordinary right which is enjoyed by all citizens to form associations.
II. It has no reference to a right which is conferred by a particular statute to act as a member of a body which is the creation of the statute itself.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
12. Which of the following restrictions on Freedom of Association is/are considered to be unreasonable?
A. Government cannot make it obligatory for every employee to become a member of an association sponsored by the Government
B. A restriction on this freedom which may remain in force for an indefinite period at the pleasure of the executive authorities is an unreasonable restriction
C. Where those who have a right to form an association will be kept away and the society shall be run by a group of persons nominated by the Government, there is a virtual deprivation of the right to association
D. All of them
Ans. D
13. By which of the following clauses, the right to Freedom of movement is granted to Indian citizens?
A. Article 19(1) C
B. Article 19(1) B
C. Article 19(1) A
D. Article 19(1) D
Ans. D
14. Surveillance is needed for the legitimate purpose of prevention of crime and its process must necessarily be confidential. In which of the following situations the court may interfere in the police surveillance?
I. Where it is sought to be used for a purpose other than the detection of crime.
II. Where the surveillance is as excessive as to squeeze out the fundamental freedoms of all citizens or to offend the dignity of the individual.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
15. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of Residence is/are found to be correct?
I. Since the rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution are available only to a citizen, a person cannot complain of the infringement of his right under the sub clause (1) (e) if his citizenship has been terminated by a law made by Parliament, under Article 11.
II. It is not available to a foreigner.
A. Neither I nor II
B. I and II
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
16. Which of the following expression is/are employed under Article 19(1) (g) of the Indian Constitution?
A. Profession
B. Occupation
C. Trade and Business
D. All of them
Ans. D
17. Which of the following clauses is/are covered under Article 20 of the Indian Constitution?
I. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
II. No person shall be prosecuted and punished (of the same offence more than once.
III. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
A. Only I
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
18. Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is about “accused’s immunity from being compelled to be a witness against himself”. This clause gives protection:
A. To a person accused of an offence
B. Against compulsion to be a witness
C. Against himself
D. All of them
Ans. D
19. Which of the following is/are an essential ingredient of the clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution?
A. Compulsion
B. Confession
C. Prohibition
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. A
20. Which of the following statements regarding protection of personal liberty is/are found to be correct?
I. The object of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is to prevent encroachment upon personal liberty by the Executive save in accordance with law and in conformity with the provisions thereof.
II. Before a person is deprived of his life or personal liberty the procedure established by law must be strictly followed and must not be departed from to the disadvantage of the person affected.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of above
Ans. A
21. The protection of the Article 21 extends to which of the following?
A. Citizens
B. All persons
C. Foreigners
D. Persons under imprisonment
Ans. B
22. Which of the following can be included in Right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
I. Right of a person not to be subjected to bonded labour or to unfair conditions of labour.
II. Right of a bonded labourer to rehabilitation after release.
III. Right to a decent environment and a reasonable accommodation.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A
23. In which of the cases, domiciliary visit by the Police without the authority of a law, was held to be violative of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution assuming that a right of privacy was a fundamental right derived from the freedom of movement guaranteed by Article 19 (1) D of the Indian Constitutional as well as personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21?
A. Dr. Sudesh Jale v. State of Haryana
B. Kharak Singh v. State of U.P
C. Govind v. State of M.P
D. Neera Mathur v. L.I.C
Ans. B
24. Which of the following statements regarding reasonableness of a penal law is/are found to be correct?
I. A procedure which was ‘arbitrary, oppressive or fanciful’ was no ‘procedure’ at all.
II. A procedure which was unreasonable could not be said to be in conformity with Article 14, because the concept of reasonableness permeated that Article in toto.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
25. ‘Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 21
B. Article 21A
C. Article 22
D. Article 22A
Ans. C
26. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The person arrested has a right to consult a legal advisor of his own choice, ever since the moment of his arrest and also to have effective interview with the lawyer out of the hearing of the police, though it may be within their presence.
II. The right extends to any person who is arrested, whether under the general law or under a special statute.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
27. Which of the following is mentioned in clause (2) of Article 22 of the Indian Constitution?
A. The right to consult legal practitioner
B. Right to be defended by a legal practitioner
C. Right to be produced before the nearest magistrate
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. C
28. The right to make a representation against the order of detention is the most cherished and valuable right conferred upon a detenu under Article_______________ of the Indian Constitution and if there has been any infraction of such right the detenu is entitled to be released.
A. 22(2)
B. 22(3)
C. 22(4)
D. 22(5)
Ans. D
29. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes under which of the following fundamental rights?
A. Right to freedom
B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to education and culture
D. Right to constitutional remedies
Ans. B
30. ‘Labour or service exacted by Government or a person in power without giving remuneration for it’ is termed as:
A. Forced labour
B. Beggar
C. Unemployed
D. None of them
Ans. B
31. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states. ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment?
A. Article 22
B. Article 22(2)
C. Article 23
D. Article 24
Ans. D
32. Right to Freedom of Religion’ is contained in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 25-28
B. Article 29-30
C. Article 32
D. Article 19-22
Ans. A
33. Nothing in Article 25 of the Indian Constitution shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the state from making any law:-
I. Regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
II. Providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the above statements is/are found to correct?
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
34. The meetings of the State Legislative Council are presided by the ______
A. Deputy Speaker
B. Speaker
C. Chairman
D. Governor
Ans. C
35. Under Article 26 of the Indian Constitution, subject to public order, morality and health every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right:
A. To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
B. To manage its own affairs in matters of religion
C. To own and acquire movable and immovable property
D. All of them
Ans. D
36. Which of the following statements regarding Right of religious denomination under is/are found to be correct?
I. This Article does not take away the right of the State to acquire property belonging to a religious denomination.
II. This Article does not create rights in any denomination or a section which it never had.
III. Article 25(1) states that all persons are entitled to freedom of religion.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
Ans. C
37. Which of the following statements regarding clause C of Article 26 of the Indian Constitution i.e. Right to own property is/are found to be correct?
I. Under this clause every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire property belonging to a religious body but it does prevent such property from being acquired by authority of law or to be assessed to land revenue.
II. The right guaranteed by Article 26 C. cannot be claimed after the ownership of a religious denomination is otherwise validly terminated.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
38. ‘Freedom as to attendance at religions instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 27
B. Article 27(1)
C. Article 28
D. Article 26
Ans. C
39. Articles 29-30 of the Indian Constitution confers which of the following distinct rights?
A. Right of any section of citizens to conserve its own language, script or culture
B. Right to all religious or linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
C. Right of an educational institution not to be discriminated against in the matter of state aid on the ground that it is under management of a minority
D. All of them
Ans. D
40. Which of the following conditions for the applications of clause (1) of Article 30 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. In order to claim the benefit of Article 30 (1), the community must show (i) that it is a religious or linguistic minority and (ii) that the institution was establish by it.
II. If an institution has been brought into being by a minority community it matters not if the funds have been supplied by a single individual or by the community at large, or whether members outside that community are also taking advantage of the institution.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
41. The right to administrator may be said to consist of which of the following rights?
I. To choose its managing or governing body.
II. Not to be compelled to refuse admission to students.
III. To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
42. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution the right to compulsory acquisition of property was mentioned before its deletion?
A. Article 30(1)
B. Article 31
C. Article 32
D. Article 30(2)
Ans. B
43. In which of the following states of India is Article 31 of the Indian Constitution applicable even after its deletion by the 44th Amendment Act?
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. A
44. Sub-clause (1) A of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution applies in which of the following contingencies?
A. Acquisition of an estate
B. Extinguishment of rights in an estate
C. Modification of rights in an estate
D. All of them
Ans. D
45. Which of the following conditions is/are required for the application of sub-clause B of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution?
I. The taking over must be for a limited and not be an indefinite period of time or amount to acquisition
II. It must be either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper management of the property, which must be objectively established.
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
46. Which of the following statements regarding the object of Article 3 IB of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 3IB has been inserted, by way of abundant caution, to save the particular Acts included in the 9th schedule of the constitution, notwithstanding any decision of a court or tribunal that any of those Acts is void for contravention of any fundamental right.
II. Article 3 IB is not illustrative of the rule contained in Article 31 A, but stands independent of it, and validates certain Acts specified in the Ninth schedule, though the compensation provided was not real or adequate.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
Ans. D
47. Which of the following rights is considered as the ‘soul of fundamental rights’?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to constitutional remedies
D. Right against exploitation
Ans. C
48. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs according to Right to Constitutional Remedies. Which of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme Court for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Quo Warranto
D. All of them
Ans. D
49. In which of the following situation the Supreme Court will not interfere under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
A. No question other than relating to a fundamental right will be determined in a proceeding under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
B. If the validity of other provisions of the statute is challenged on the grounds other than the contravention of fundamental rights, the court would not entertain that challenge in a proceeding under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
C. The court will not interfere with the finding of fact where it was based on just and reasonable satisfaction and was not perverse
D. All of them
Ans. D
50. Which of the following statements regarding ‘What the Supreme Court cannot do under Article 32’ of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The Supreme Court will not give a declaration which will not serve any useful purpose to the petitioner.
II. The Supreme Court will not issue damages which are available only in a suit.
III. In the absence of adequate materials, the Court would not enter into a political arena which should be properly dealt with by the Government.
A. All are incorrect
B. All are correct
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans. B
51. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal:
A. Government of India Act, 1919
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Ans. B
52. The main recommendations of the Cabinet Commission include:
A. formation of Federal Union consisting of British Indian provinces and Indian States
B. a Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India
C. an interim government consisting of representatives of various political parties
D. all of the above.
Ans. D
53. Which one of the following Acts provided for setting up of a Board of Control in Britain through which the British Government could fully control the British East India Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs in India:
A. Regulating Act of 1773
B. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C. Charter Act of 1833
D. Government of India Act, 1858.
Ans. B
54. The plan of Stafford crips envisaged that after the Second World War:
A. India should be granted complete independence
B. India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
C. India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the commonwealth
D. India should be given dominion status.
Ans. D
55. The Act in which for the first time statutory rules were framed to separate provincial subjects from the central subjects was the:
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Indian Council Act, 1892.
Ans. C
56. Under which one of the following Acts was the Communal Electorate System introduced by the British in India for the first time:
A. Government of India Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Indian Councils Act, 1861
D. Indian Council Act, 1892.
Ans. A
57. In the Federation established by the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to:
A. Federal Legislature
B. Provincial Legislature
C. Governor General
D. Provincial Governors.
Ans. C
58. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919:
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures
Codes –
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4.
Ans. D
59. First attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in the Governance of India was made through:
A. Indian Council Act, 1861
B. Indian Council Act, 1892
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Government of India Act, 1919.
Ans. C
60. Which of the following proved to be the shortest lived of all the British constitutional experiments in India:
A. Government of India Act, 1919
B. Indian Councils Act, 1909
C. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
D. Government of India Act, 1935.
Ans. B
61. Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Ans. A
62. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the legislature:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. Indian Councils Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. None of the above.
Ans. C
63. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by:
A. Charter Act, 1833
B. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Indian Council Act, 1861
D. Government of India Act, 1935.
Ans. B
64. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that ‘Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution’:
A. In re: Golaknath case
B. In re: Maneka Gandhi
C. In re: Swam Singh
D. In re: Keshwananda Bharti.
Ans. D
65. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not the Part of the Constitution:
A. A.K. Gopalan case
B. Berubari case
C. Minerva Mills case
D. A.K. Antony case.
Ans. B
66. Preambleless statute is a rare occurrence. But there are some statutes which do not have a Preamble. Which of the following statutes has no Preamble:
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. The British North America Act
D. Constitution of Switzerland.
Ans. A
67. Sovereignty under Constitution belongs to:
A. the President
B. the Parliament
C. the People
D. the Executant, Judiciary and Legislature.
Ans. C
68. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
A. 25 August, 1949
B. 26 November, 1949
C. 26 January, 1950
D. 15 August, 1947.
Ans. B
69. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:
A. it shall stand part of the Constitution
B. it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution
C. it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution
D. it has a separate entity in the Constitution.
Ans. A
70. In the Preamble of the Constitution equality of status and opportunity refers to:
A. public services and public matters only
B. social, political and economic affairs only
C. social and economic affairs only
D. both (a) and (b).
Ans. D
71. Expression ‘socialist’ in the Preamble has been added by taking the views of:
A. Marx and Laski
B. Marx and Gandhi
C. Rousseau and Gandhi
D. Gandhi and Hegel.
Ans. B
72. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
A. Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers
B. Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspirations of the people
C. Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution
D. Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Constitution.
Ans. D
73. The word ‘socialist secular’ and ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were made to our Constitution by:
A. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
B. 44th Amendment of the Constitution
C. 46th Amendment of the Constitution
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
74. Which one of the following statements is correct:
A. Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368
B. Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended
C. Preamble is the part of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made
D. Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective resolution.
Ans. C
75. The Preamble of our Constitution is solemnly resolved to secure to its people:
A. Justice, social, economic and political; liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship and equality of status and opportunity
B. Fundamental Rights and Duties
C. Civil, Political and Economic fundamental rights
D. Parliamentary form of Government.
Ans. A
76. The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of:
A. People of India
B. Constituent Assembly of free India
C. Constitution of India
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Ans. A
77. The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We, the People of India have established:
A. a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
B. a Sovereign, Democratic Republic
C. a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic.
D. a Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Sovereign, Republic.
Ans. A
78. Which one of the following statements is correct:
A. the Preamble enumerates the purpose and objectives that the legislation intended to achieve
B. Preamble reflects the intention of the members of the Constituent Assembly
C. the Preamble codifies the regular measures to the citizens
D. envisages only liberty in all spheres.
Ans. A
79. The word ‘Socialist’ in Preamble, aims to:
A. eliminate inequality in economic and political status
B. eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs
C. eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life
D. eliminate class based society.
Ans. C
80. Which one of the following statements is correct:
A. the Constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
B. the Constitution is individual centric or individual oriented
C. the Constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual
D. the Constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual interest with permanent interest of the community.
Ans. D
81. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our ‘Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’. Who was the Judge:
A. Mathew, J.
B. Krishna Iyer, J.
C. Subba Rao, J.
D. H.R. Khanna, J.
Ans. C
82. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was:
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Jai Prakash Narayan
C. C. Rajgopalachari
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Ans. D
83. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution was:
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. KM. Munshi
C. Sir. A. Krishna Iyer
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Ans. A
84. ‘Fraternity’ means a ‘sense of common brotherhood to all Indians’ and is the principle which gives unity and solidarity to social life’. It was said by:
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. C. Rajgopalachari.
Ans. B
85. The words ‘Social Justice’ in the Preamble of the Constitution, aims the primary duty of the State:
A. to make sure that justice was not based on caste, community, race or religion
B. to work for creating a fruitful environment where a reasonable attitude towards social relations strengthened
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of the above.
Ans. C
86. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were inserted in the Preamble by:
(a) 15th Amendment of the Constitution
(b) 39th Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
(d) 44th Amendment of the Constitution.
Ans. (c)
87. The Constitution of India (100th Amendment) Act, 2015 deals with:
A. Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh
B. Right to fair compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
C. Goods and Service Tax
D. Reservation in promotion to SC/STs.
Ans. A
88. Though the major part of the Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950, the provision relating to citizenship, elections, provisional Parliament, and temporary and transitional provisions came into force with immediate effect, from:
A. 15 August, 1949
B. 30 June, 1948
C. 26 November, 1949
D. 26 June, 1950.
Ans. C
89. ‘Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.’ Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the case of:
A. In re: Beru Bari Union
B. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerela
C. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D. In re: Kerala Education Bill.
Ans. B
90. In accordance with the text of the Constitution, a reasonable restriction in the interest of ‘sovereignty and integrity’ of India can be imposed on the right to:
A. freedom of speech and expression
B. move freely throughout the territory of India
C. reside and settle in any part of territory of India
D. carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Ans. A
91. Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing provisions of this Part shall, subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue to be such citizen. ‘Continuance of the rights of Citizenship’ is the content of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 10
B. Article 11
C. Article 9
D. Article 9(2)
Ans. A
92. Part I of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
A. The Union and its territory
B. Union of States
C. Preamble
D. Amendments
Ans. A
93. Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following terms?
A. Citizenship
B. Union Government
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Fundamental Rights
Ans. D
94. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The fundamental rights cannot be taken away by any legislation.
II. Legislation can only impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of above
Ans. C
95. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this part, shall to the extent of such inconsistency, be void. (Article 13(1) Indian Constitution)
II. The state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
A. I and II
B. both are incorrect
C. only I
D. only II
Ans. A
96. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution says, “Nothing in this Article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution”. Clause (4) has been inserted by which of the following Amendment Acts?
A. 22nd Amendment Act
B. 21st Amendment Act
C. 24th Amendment Act
D. 23rd Amendment Act
Ans. C
97. Who, among the following, can challenge the constitutionality of a law?
I. No one but whose rights is directly affected by a law can raise the question of the constitutionality of the law.
II. A person who is not possessed of a fundamental right cannot challenge the validity of a law on the ground that it is inconsistent with a fundamental right.
III. A person who challenges the constitutionality of a statute must show that he is sustaining some direct injury as the result of enforcement of the statute.
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. B
98. Clause (4) of Article 13 the Indian Constitution which were inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368, Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void in which of the following cases?
A. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
B. Edward Mills Co. ltd. v. State of Ajmer
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India
Ans. C
99. Which of the following equalities is/are included in the Right to Equality?
A. Equality before Law
B. Equal Protection of Laws
C. Equal Pay for equal work
D. All of them
Ans. D
100. Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law and independence of Judiciary?
A. Judicial Review
B. Impartial appointment of Judges
C. Impeachment
D. Original Jurisdiction
Ans. A
101. Where there is a conflict between law and equity, it is the ____ which has to prevail?
A. Law
B. Equity
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. A
102. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is considered as the heart of the Constitution as it confers right to life as well as right to choose?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 15
Ans. B
103. Under right to equality, prohibition or discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 14
B. Article 16
C. Article 15
D. Article 15(2)
Ans. C
104. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Discrimination on the ground of residence will be invalid under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution where it is not founded on a reasonable classification.
II. ‘Residence’ cannot be a ground for disqualifying a person for appointment under a state, unless Parliament so prescribes under Article 16(3).
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. None of them
D. Both I and II
Ans. D
105. The Court can interfere if there is no principle according to which the state has classified a community as ‘socially and educationally backward’ or the principle adopted is arbitrary thus the court would strike down as discriminatory:
I. A classification of all communities in a state other than Brahmins as socially and educationally backward.
II. A classification by which communities having a higher percentage of literacy are included as ‘backward’ while those having a lower percentage are excluded.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. none of them
Ans. A
106. A Scheduled Caste is not a ‘caste’ within the meaning of that word in Article. 15(1) and 16(2) of the Indian Constitution. It has a special meaning, namely, a caste as notified by the________ under Article 366 (25) of the Indian Constitution having regard to their abysmal backwardness.
A. Parliament
B. Governor
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Ans. C
107. A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on the ground of__________ would be violative of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution.
A. Sex
B. Remuneration
C. Place of birth
D. Religion
Ans. A
108. In making reservations for the backward classes, the state cannot ignore the _____ of the rest of the citizens.
A. Civil Rights
B. Political Rights
C. Economic Rights
D. Fundamental Rights
Ans. D
109. ‘Equality of opportunity in matter of public employment’ is the basic content of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 15(2)
D. Article 16(4)
Ans. A
110. Clause (1) and (2) of Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity to all citizens in the matter of appointment to any office or of any other employment under the state. However, clauses (3)-(5) lay down the following several exceptions to the rule of equality.
I. Though any citizen of India, irrespective of his residence, is eligible for any office or employment under the Government of India [Clause (2)] residence may be laid down as a condition for particular classes of employment under a state or any local authority therein, by an Act of Parliament in the behalf [Clause (3)].
II. The State (as defined in Article 12) may reserve any post or appointment in favor of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under the state [Clause (4)].
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A