Constitution of India questions and answers for UPSC, Civil Services, IAS, Indian judicial Service and other Competitive Exams!
1. The limit imposed on ‘investigatory journalism’ primarily flows from:
(i) the right to reputation
(ii) the right to privacy
(iii) the law of Contempt of Court
(a) only (iii)
(b) only (ii) and (iii)
(c) only (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
Ans. (d)
2. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not true:
(a) Article 20 is directly relevant to the civil and criminal process
(b) Article 20(1) is concerned with the substantive law of criminal liability and penalty only
(c) Articles 20(2) and 20(3) are mainly concerned with the stage of procedure
(d) Article 20(3) gives protection against ‘testimonial compulsion’.
Ans. (a)
3. The provision to fill ‘backlog vacancy’ was inserted in Article 16 by which of the following Amendment Act:
(a) 77th Amendment Act, 1995
(b) 81st Amendment Act, 2000
(c) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
(d) It was never inserted in Article 16.
Ans. (b)
4. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or trust under the State cannot accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (a)
5. In order to judge the validity of a law in the context of Article 19, which one of the following is not the condition considered by the court:
(a) whether the law imposes general restriction
(b) whether the restrictions have been imposed by law
(c) whether restrictions are reasonable
(d) whether imposed restriction relevant to the freedom in question.
Ans. (a)
6. Under Article 15 of the Constitution, the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds:
(a) Colour
(b) religion
(c) Sex
(d) both (b) and (c).
Ans. (d)
7. The State cannot make special provision for which one of the following under Article 15:
(a) women and children
(b) socially and educationally backward classes
(c) Scheduled Castes
(d) Economically Backward Classes.
Ans. (d)
8. ‘Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles:
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
9. Grounds of discrimination mentioned under Article 15 and Article 16 are moreover similar, but more grounds have been mentioned in Article 16. Find those grounds from the following options:
(a) Descent
(b) Place of birth
(c) Residence
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Ans. (d)
10. The Directive principles are aimed at:
(a) securing political freedom
(b) securing social and economic freedom by appropriate action
(c) executive supremacy
(d) judicial supremacy.
Ans. (b)
11. One of the objectives of Directive Principles of State Policy is:
(a) total prohibition
(b) prevention of cow slaughter
(c) protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wild life
(d) prevention of gambling and lotteries.
Ans. (c)
12. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed:
(a) there is remedy in the court
(b) there is no remedy by judicial proceedings
(c) there is remedy in Lok Adalat
(d) there is remedy in the court of special Executive Magistrate.
Ans. (b)
13. Article 39 protects and suggests:
(a) abolition of Zamindari by the state for public purposes
(b) minimization of wages to the workers
(c) industrial disputes can be settled by industrialist themselves
(d) dowry prohibition and its practice is punishable.
Ans. (a)
14. The object of Directive Principles of State Policy aims at:
(a) embodiment of the concept of a welfare State, Legislature and judiciary.
(b) supremacy of executive
(c) embodiment of multifarious concepts of Judicial activism
(d) Parliament is supreme body unanswerable to any authority.
Ans. (c)
15. Fundamental duties are enshrined in:
(a) Part IV, Article 51
(b) Part IV, Article 51A
(c) Part IV A, Article 51
(d) Part IV A, Article 51A.
Ans. (d)
16. From which country the principles of Fundamental Duties have been derived:
(a) Ireland
(b) USSR
(c) Britain
(d) France.
Ans. (b)
17. Fundamental Duties were inserted in the Constitution by:
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 47th Amendment
(d) 49th Amendment.
Ans. (a)
18. How many duties are conferred on the citizens in Article 51A:
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12.
Ans. (c)
19. According to the Constitution 86th amendment of 2002, it is the fundamental duties of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child:
(a) ward between the age of 6 to 14 years
(b) ward between the age of 6 to 12 years
(c) ward between the age of 6 to 10 years
(d) ward between the age of 6 to 9 years
Ans. (a)
20. Directive Principles of State Policy are:
(a) unique feature of the Constitution
(b) actual feature of the Constitution
(c) not a novel feature of the Constitution
(d) useless feature of the Constitution.
Ans. (b)
21. Directive Principles of State Policy are:
(a) not part of Indian Constitution
(b) policy declarations made by Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) policy principles enunciated by the Planning Commission
(d) a part of Indian Constitution.
Ans. (d)
22. The term ‘State’ in connection with the Directive Principles:
(a) has a meaning given to it in reference to fundamental rights
(b) means only Union and State Legislature
(c) means all three organs of the Government
(d) means the same thing as in connection with the fundamental rights.
Ans. (b)
23. Directive Principles are:
(a) justifiable as fundamental rights
(b) justifiable but not as fundamental rights
(c) decorative portions of Indian Constitution
(d) not justifiable, yet fundamental in governance of the country.
Ans. (d)
24. The State shall make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief:
(a) the above is directive principle
(b) is a part of preamble of the Constitution
(c) is a fundamental right
(d) fundamental duty of the State.
Ans. (a)
25. Fundamental duties under Article 51A is confined to:
(a) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(b) public servants
(c) all those who rim public sector enterprise
(d) citizens of India.
Ans. (d)
26. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is:
(a) directive principle
(b) fundamental duty
(c) national policy
(d) both directive principle and fundamental duty.
Ans. (d)
27. Upholding and protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is:
(a) a part of Preamble of the Constitution
(b) fundamental duty
(c) basic structure of the Constitution
(d) a part of Preamble, fundamental duty as well as basic structure of our Constitution.
Ans. (d)
28. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IVA of the Constitution are:
(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the non-compliance
(b) like directive principles are mandates to people
(c) like fundamental rights are enforceable
(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value.
Ans. (b)
29. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi Committee.
Ans. (a)
30. ‘Provisions relating to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be only promoted by constitutional methods. But they can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes’. In which of the cases was this principle enunciated:
(a) Motilal v. State of UP
(b) Civil Rights Committee v. UOI
(c) Head Masters v. UOI
(d) Magan Bhai v. UOI.
Ans. (c)
31. Which of the following is not a Directive Principles:
(a) the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens uniform civil code
(b) the State shall promote with special care of the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections
(c) The State shall endeavour to promote adult education to eliminate illiteracy.
(d) the State shall procure sportsmanship.
Ans. (d)
32. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:
(a) fundamental right of every citizen
(b) fundamental duty of every citizen
(c) directive principles of State policy
(d) ordinary duty of every citizen.
Ans. (b)
33. Assertion (A): Directive principles are not enforceable by any court.
Reason (R): Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in governance of the country:
(a) both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
34. ‘Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution’ was described by:
(a) Granville Austin
(b) A. V. Dicey
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) K.L. Wheare.
Ans. (c)
35. Which of the following are included in the list of fundamental duties in the Constitution:
1. to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideal and institution
2. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
3. to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. to uphold and protect secularism
Codes –
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans. (d)
36. Assertion (A): Directive Principles are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19.
Reason (R): Directive Principles have been declared superior to Fundamental Rights:
(a) both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
37. The fundamental duties provided in the Constitution are:
1. to protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
2. to safeguard private property
3. to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life.
Codes –
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 3 and 1 are correct.
Ans. (d)
38. The fundamental duties provided in the Constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To safeguard private property
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of enquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3.
Ans. (d)
39. It shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
1. to owe allegiance to nation and to uphold and protect the sovereignty and security of India
2. to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
3. to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Codes –
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3.
Ans. (b)
40. Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental for:
(a) upliftment of backward classes
(b) protection of individual rights
(c) administration of justice
(d) governance of the State.
Ans. (d)
41. Directive principles of State Policy are:
1. Not amendable
2. Not enforceable by any court
3. fundamental to the governance of the country
Codes –
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans. (c)
42. The Orissa (Alteration of Name) Act, 2011 altered the State of Orissa as:
(a) Odisha
(b) Odisa
(c) Odissa
(d) Orientsa
Ans. (a)
43. Which is the fundamental duty of every citizen of India:
(a) to be truthful to one’s duties
(b) to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of children
(c) to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of human beings
(d) to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
Ans. (d)
44. After the judgment of Minerva Mills v. UOI, the provision of Article 31C means:
(a) all Directive Principles supersede fundamental rights
(b) no Directive Principles can supersede the fundamental rights
(c) the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(a) supersede the fundamental rights
(d) the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b), (c) supersede the fundamental rights.
Ans. (d)
45. India borrowed the idea of incorporating Fundamental Rights in the Constitution from:
(a) Constitution of France
(b) Constitution of USA
(c) Constitution of Britain
(d) Charter of Human Rights.
Ans. (b)
46. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizen are:
(a) enshrined in the original Constitution
(b) added to the Constitution by 42nd Amendment
(c) added to the Constitution by 44th Amendment
(d) added to Constitution by the Supreme Court judgment in Keshvananda Bharti case.
Ans. (b)
47. The Directive Principle of State Policy aim at:
(a) ensuring individual liberty
(b) ensuring strengthening of country’s independence
(c) providing a social and economic base for genuine democracy in the country
(d) achievement of all these objectives.
Ans. (d)
48. Which one of the following amendments accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights:
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 39th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment.
Ans. (c)
49. In which part of the Constitution the concept of Welfare State finds elaboration:
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Directive Principles.
Ans. (d)
50. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive Principles from:
(a) Constitution of Indian Republic
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Constitution of Ireland
(d) Constitution of Switzerland.
Ans. (c)
51. Which one is correct statement:
(a) Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles
(b) Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights
(c) There is no relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (d)
52. Fundamental Duties of citizens:
(a) lie scattered throughout the Constitution
(b) are contained in Part IVA of the Constitution
(c) are contained in Schedule IX of the Constitution
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
53. According to the 86th Constitution Amendment of 2002 the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete:
(a) age of 3 years
(b) age of 6 years
(c) age of 7 years
(d) age of 12 years.
Ans. (b)
54. Consider the following statements:
Directive Principles of State policy are:
1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the State
2. Directives influencing and shaping the policy of States
3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens.
Which of these statements is/are correct –
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3.
Ans. (d)
55. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a:
(a) Directive Principle of State Policy
(b) statutory provision in Labour Law
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) matter of State to pass Bill.
Ans. (a)
56. The ‘Fundamental Duties’ are intended to serve as a reminder to:
(a) the State to perform duties conferred by the Constitution
(b) the judiciary to administer justice properly
(c) every citizen to observe basic norms of democratic conduct
(d) the legislature wing to make laws for the welfare of the State.
Ans. (c)
57. “The Fundamental Duties incorporated in Article 51A of the Constitution are mere reminder to the citizens with no enforceability to ensure their compliance” was said by:
(a) D.D. Basu
(b) Subhash Kashyap
(c) Justice J.S. Verma
(d) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer.
Ans. (c)
58. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding Article 51, where the State will endeavour to:
(a) promote international peace and security
(b) encourage settlement of international dispute by International Court of Justice.
(c) foster respect for international law
(d) maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
Ans. (b)
59. In Part IVA of the Constitution, every Indian citizen has how many fundamental duties:
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) U.
Ans. (d)
60. By 86th Amendment Act, 2002, the newly added fundamental duty is:
(a) to develop scientific temper
(b) to protect and improve natural environment
(c) to provide opportunities to educate child
(d) to safeguard public property.
Ans. (c)
61. The members of State Legislative Council who are nominated by the Governor are from the field of:
A. Literature
B. Science
C. Social Service
D. All of them
Ans. D
62. Actual delivery:
A. As per Section 24(1), Expln.(2) of the Income Tax Act means real as opposed to notional delivery or symbolical delivery
B. As per Section 25(1), Expln.(2) of the Indian Evidence Act means real as opposed to notional delivery or symbolical delivery
C. As per Section 26(1), Expln.(2) of the Indian Penal Code means real as opposed to notional delivery or symbolical delivery
D. None of them
Ans. A
63. The tenure of the State Legislative Council is_________
A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. Permanent House
D. 5 years
Ans. C
64. A person should not be less than_________ of age to be a member of the State Legislative Council.
A. 25 years
B. 35 years
C. 30 years
D. 40 years
Ans. C
65. Advisory opinion:
A. Is answer to a question put to the International Court of Justice by organs of the United Nations or Specialised Agencies authorised to make such a request
B. Is an opinion of a Court or such other institution that provides an interpretation of a law of norms;
C. Is a statement of legal rights and obligations by a Court without deciding a real case and controversy
D. All of them
Ans. D
66. Which of the following is/are found to be correct?
I. The Governor may address either House of State Legislature or both Houses assembled together, and may for that purpose require the attendance of members.
II. The Governor may send messages to the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
67. Advocate-General:
A. Is an adviser of the Crown
B. He is the principal law officer of the Crown
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
68. A non-member of the State Legislature can be the minister for a period not exceeding.
A. One year
B. Six months
C. Three months
D. Six weeks
Ans. B
69. Speaker of State Legislative Assembly is elected by _____
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Chief Justice
D. The members of State Legislative Assembly
Ans. A
70. Amnesty means:
A. General condemnation
B. General punishment
C. General pardon
D. None of them
Ans. C
71. While the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the ______
A. Deputy Speaker
B. Senior Minister
C. Pro-tem Speaker
D. Chief Minister
Ans. A
72. Apabyabahara:
A. Conveys the idea that the High Court has abused its powers,
B. Means objectionable and contains an imputation to the effect that the powers were used improperly
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
73. A member holding office as chairman or Deputy Chairman of a Legislative Council:
I. Shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Council.
II. May be removed from his office by a resolution of the council passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
74. Attorney-General for India is:
A. A legal Advocate to the Government of India
B. A legal representative to the Government of India
C. A legal counsel to the Government of India
D. None of them
Ans. C
75. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. At any sitting of the Legislative Council, while any resolution for the removal of the Chairman from his office is under consideration, the Chairman shall not preside, though he is present.
II. The Chairman shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceeding of, the Legislative Council while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the Council.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
76. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The House or each House of the legislature of a State shall have a separate secretarial staff.
II. The legislature of a state may by law regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed to eh secretarial staff of the House or Houses of the legislature of the State.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
77. Mandamus:
A. Is issued to check the performance of duties of a public nature
B. Is issued to impede the performance of duties of a private nature
C. Is issued to compel the performance of duties of a public nature
D. None of them
Ans. C
78. The Speaker or Chairman, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a ______ in the case of an equality of votes.
A. Deciding Vote
B. Casting Vote
C. Analysing Vote
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. B
79. Constitution:
A. Denotes the fundamental, static law of the state
B. Denotes the fundamental, inorganic law of the state
C. Denotes the fundamental, organic law of the state
D. None of them
Ans. C
80. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. No person shall be a member of both Houses of the legislature of a State and provision shall be made by the legislature of the State by law for the vacation by a person who is chosen member of both Houses of his sat in one House or the other.
II. No person shall be a member of the legislature of two or more States specified in First Schedule.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
81. If any question arises as to whether a member of a House of the Legislature of a State has become subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in Article 191(1) of the Indian Constitution, the question shall be referred for the decision of the ____________ and his decision shall be final.
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Speaker
D. State Election Commissioner
Ans. A
82. De facto segregation:
A. Is separation of the races that occurs by private, as undistinguished from official, action
B. Is separation of the races that occurs by public, as undistinguished from official, action
C. Is separation of the races that occurs by private, as distinguished from official, action
D. None of them
Ans. C
83. Which of the followings is a penalty for sitting and voting before making oath or affirmation under Article 188 of the Indian Constitution or when not qualified or when disqualified?
A. 10% of the total allowances
B. Rs. 1000/- Per day
C. Rs. 500/- Per day
D. 15% of the total basic pay
Ans. C
84. Which of the following statements regarding power of Legislature to punish for contempt is/are found to be correct?
I. The Power of a legislature, no less than of a court, has to be used sparingly and cautiously.
II. It is not available against a Judge of the High Court for anything done by him in discharge of his duty.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
85. Delegatus non potest delegare:
A. Delegation can be made by a delegate
B. Delegation has to be made by a delegate
C. Delegation cannot be made by a delegate
D. None of them
Ans. C
86. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. A Bill pending in the legislative Council of a State which has not been passed by the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Assembly.
II. A Bill which is pending in the Legislative Assembly of a State, or which having been passed by a Legislative Assembly is pending in the Legislative Council, shall lapse on a dissolution of the Assembly.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
Ans. D
87. A Money Bill shall be introduced only in the________ .
A. State Legislative Assembly
B. State Legislative Council
C. Either of the Hoses
D. None of them
Ans. A
88. Legislative Council shall retain the Money Bill only for a period of _____.
A. One week
B. Two weeks
C. One month
D. Six weeks
Ans. B
89. Who among the followings takes the decision whether a Bill introduced in State legislative is a Money Bill or not?
A. Speaker
B. Chairman
C. Governor
D. Finance Minister
Ans. A
90. Establishment:
A. Means the bringing into being of an institution and it must be by a majority community
B. Means the bringing into being of an institution and it must be by a group of different community
C. Means the bringing into being of an institution and it must be by a minority community
D. None of them
Ans. C
91. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Proof of assent’ is/are found to be correct?
I. ‘Declaration’ of assent means nothing more than a public notification that assent has been given.
II. When the President assents to an amending act, he may be deemed to have assented to the parent act while assenting to the Amending Act.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
92. Which of the following expenditures shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of each State?
A. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to his office
B. Debt charges for which the State is liable including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges
C. Expenditure in respect of the salaries and allowances of judges of any High Court
D. All of them
Ans. D
93. Ex turpi causa non oritur action means:
A. From an immoral cause, action arises
B. From a moral cause, no action arises
C. From an immoral cause, no action arises
D. None of them
Ans. C
94. The provision in Article 205 of the Indian Constitution (Supplementary, additional or excess grants) can be availed of only if:
A. The money already voted in the Budget for a particular purpose is insufficient
B. When a need arises after the Budget was passed for incurring a particular expenditure
C. When some new service not contemplated in the Budget has been stated
D. All of them
Ans. D
95. A Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of a State shall not be passed by a House of the legislature of the State unless_________ has recommended to that House the consideration of the Bill.
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Attorney General
D. Speaker
Ans. B
96. In a State having a Legislative Council, the Governor may make rules as to the procedure with respect to communications between the two Houses after consultation with:
A. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
B. The Chairman of the Legislative Council
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
97. No discussion shall take place in the State Legislature with respect to the conduct of:
A. Any Judge of the Supreme Court
B. Any Judge of a High Court
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
98. Interpretivism means a:
A. Doctrine of constitutional validation holding that judges must follow norms or values expressly stated or implied in the language of the Constitution
B. Doctrine of constitutional editing holding that judges must follow norms or values expressly stated or implied in the language of the Constitution
C. Doctrine of constitutional interpretation holding that judges must follow norms or values expressly stated or implied in the language of the Constitution
D. None of them
Ans. C
99. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Where a Bill is duly endorsed by the Speaker as passed, it cannot be questioned in the Court on the ground that proceedings of the Legislature do not record that the bill was formally put to the House under the rules of business and carried by it.
II. Proceedings inside the Legislature cannot be called into question on the ground that they have not been carried on in accordance with the rules of business.
A. Both are correct
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
100. Interregnum means:
A. Interval when state has no normal ruler
B. Especially an interval or pause between two successive reigns
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
101. If at any time, except when the Legislative Assembly of a State is in session, the ______ may promulgate ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Speaker
D. Council of Ministers
Ans. A
102. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor remains in force for a period of _____.
A. One month
B. Six weeks
C. Three months
D. Six months
Ans. B
103. Per curiam opinion is:
A. An unsigned opinion for the Court; often used when the conclusion in a case is so straightforward that no extended discussion seems necessary
B. In the opposite extreme, when a collegial Court is so fragmented there is agreement only on the result announced
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
104. Which of the followings is/are the incidents of a court of record regarding High Court?
A. High Court has the power to determine questions about its own jurisdiction
B. High Court has inherent power to punish for its contempt summarily
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
105. Which of the following statements regarding fixation of strength of High Court is/are found to be correct?
I. The fixation of the strength of a High Court is an executive function, which is to be exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
II. There being no judicially manageable standard, no court can issue a writ of mandamus, declaration or any other legal relief, commanding the Government to fix any number of Judges for a High Court.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
106. President, while appointing the Judge of a High Court, can consult with the _____.
A. Governor of the State
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Chief Justice of the High Court
D. All of them
Ans. D
107. Which of the following qualifications should be satisfied by a person for an appointment as a Judge of a High Court?
A. Citizen of India
B. Should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years
C. Should have been an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least ten years
D. All of them
Ans. D
108. Which of the following statements regarding appointment of Judges is/are found to be correct?
I. The process of appointment of Judges to the Supreme Court and the High Court is an integrated ‘participatory consultative process’ for selecting the best and most suitable persons available for appointment.
II. No appointment of any Judge to the Supreme Court or any High Court can be made unless it is in conformity with the opinion of the Chief Justice of India.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
109. Reasonableness means:
A. Inequity in the circumstances
B. Partiality in the circumstances
C. Fairness in the circumstances
D. None of them
Ans. C
110. Who among the following administers the oath to the judges of the High Court?
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Chief Justice of India
D. President
Ans. B