Are you preparing for Bihar Judicial Services preliminary examination? Here are few questions on Law and GK that will help you in clearing the exam!
1. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times:
(a) National Emergency
(b) Constitutional Emergency
(c) Financial Emergency
(d) all three, equal number of times.
Ans. (b)
2. The Council of Ministers has to tender its resignation if vote of no-confidence is passed against it:
(a) by the Lok Sabha
(b) by the Rajya Sabha
(c) by the two Houses at a joint sitting
(d) by the Supreme Court.
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following statement is true about the Panchsheel agreement signed between India & China:
(a) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(b) Mutual non-aggression
(c) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
(d) Equality and mutual benefit and peaceful co-existence.
Ans. (d)
4. Depreciation means:
(a) Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
(b) Destruction of plant
(c) Closure of plant
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
5. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by Parliament on the recommendation of:
(a) the Governor
(b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) President
(d) none of above.
Ans. (b)
6. Cohabitation___________________ on whether there is sexual intercourse between husband and wife.
A. Completely depends
B. Does not necessarily depend
C. Must not depend
D. None of the above
Ans: B
7. Membership of Legislative Assembly can vary between:
(a) 60 and 500
(b) 100 and 300
(c) 150 and 450
(d) 100 and 400.
Ans. (a)
8. The total number of languages in the 8th Schedule to Constitution of India increased to 22 by the:
(a) Constitution 92nd amendment
(b) Constitution 91st amendment
(c) Constitution 90th amendment
(d) Constitution 89th amendment
Ans. (a)
9. An ex-parte decree passed under Order XXXVII of CPC can be set aside under Order XXXVII, Rule 4:
(a) under special circumstances
(b) on showing sufficient cause as contemplated under Order IX, Rule 13 of CPC
(c) under general circumstances
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (a)
10. Article 300A of the Indian Constitution i.e. Right to Property has been inserted in the Constitution by ____________
A. 44th Amendment Act
B. 42nd Amendment Act
C. 40th Amendment Act
D. 51st Amendment Act
Ans. (A)
11. Such supplemental powers which are conferred upon the Supreme Court by the Parliament and are not inconsistent with any of the provisions of this Constitution desirable for the purpose of enabling the court more effectively to exercise the jurisdiction conferred upon it by or under this constitution are known as __________
A. Ancillary Powers.
B. Advisor Powers.
C. Original Powers.
D. All the above.
Ans. (A)
12. Which of the following deals with settlement of disputes outside the Court in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 90
B. Section 88
C. Section 89
D. Section 82
Ans. (C)
13. Which of the following is true of a District Judge who functions as a Claims Tribunal?
A. He is under the administrative control of the High Court
B. He is subordinate to the High Court under s. 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
C. The order passed by the Tribunal is revisable under s. 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
14. According to Article 39 of the Indian Constitution the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing:
I. That the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
II. That the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to sub-serve the common good.
III. That there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and II
Ans. A
15. Which of the following directives has been given the Supreme Court for the welfare of the children according to clauses (e), (f) of Article 39 of the Indian Constitution?
A. The Children should not be employed in hazardous jobs in factories for manufacture of match boxes and fire works
B. Positive steps should be taken for the welfare of such children as well as for improving the quality of their life
C. The employer of children below 14 years must comply with the provisions of the child labour Act providing for compensation, employment of their parents/ guardians and their education
D. All of them
Ans. D
16. ‘Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases’ is an essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 40
B. Article 41
C. Article 39
D. Article 42
Ans. B
17. Which of the following deals with postage in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 140
B. Section 148
C. Section 143
D. Section 100
Ans. C
18. Which of the following deals with objections as to non-joinder or misjoinder in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 6, Rule 1
B. Order 2, Rule 2
C. Order 1, Rule 13
D. Order 4, Rule 8
Ans. C
19. Which of the following deals with service of summons where defendant resides within jurisdictions of another Court in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 7, Rule 14
B. Order 9, Rule 12
C. Order 5, Rule 21
D. Order 10, Rule 8
Ans. C
20. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with “when leading questions may be asked”?
A. Section 143
B. Section 146
C. Section 140
D. Section 163
Ans. A
21. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with “who may give evidence of agreement varying terms of document”?
A. Section 94
B. Section 80
C. Section 86
D. Section 99
Ans. D
22. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act provides for the provisions of Section 126 to apply to interpreters, etc.?
A. Section 127
B. Section 144
C. Section 102
D. Section 115
Ans. A
23. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act must be read along with Sections 61, 62, 65 and 67, Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 54
B. Section 64
C. Section 74
D. Section 84
Ans. B
24. Which of the following statements regarding Right to education is/are found to be correct?
I. The duty of the State, under this directive is not only to establish educational institutions but also to effectively secure the right to education, by admitting students to the seats available at such institutions, by admitting candidates found eligible according to some rational principle.
II. Even though this right is not a fundamental right and is not judicially enforceable as such, once the State, by legislative or administrative actions, provides facilities for education, its action must conform to the standard of equality and rationality underlying Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
25. Appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme Court shall be made by the ________
A. President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. President in consultation with Council of Ministers
Ans. (B)
26. A person invoking the aid of Section 17, Limitation Act, 1963 must establish which of the following?
A. That there had been a fraud
B. That by means of such fraud ‘he was kept away from the knowledge of his right to sue or apply or of the title on which such right is founded’
C. Time will be extended under the section only as against the person guilty of fraud who is accessory thereto or who claims through the person guilty of fraud otherwise than in good faith and for valuable consideration
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
27. The proviso to Section 17(1) covers which of the following the cases?
A. Fraud
B. Mistake
C. Concealed document
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
28. Under proviso (i) to sub-section(1) of the present Section 17, Limitation Act, 1963, in the case of fraud the section cannot apply against a person who______.
A. Has purchased for a valuable consideration
B. Is not himself a party to the fraud
C. Does not know or have reasons to believe, at the time of the purchase that any fraud had been committed
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
29. The word ‘signed’ in Section 18, Limitation Act, 1963 means which of the following?
A. Signed personally
B. Signed by an agent duly authorised in this behalf
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
30. The provisions in Section 48 of the Code of Civil Procedure were incorporated in which of the following articles of the Limitation Act, 1963?
A. Article 133
B. Article 134
C. Article 135
D. Article 136
Ans. (D)
31. In an application under Order XXXVII, Rule 4 of CPC for setting aside the ex-parte decree, the defendant has to show:
(a) special circumstances which prevented him from appearing or applying for leave to defend
(b) facts which would entitle him to leave to defend
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
32. In a suit under Order XXXVII, Rule 2 of CPC the defendant has to put in appearance within:
(a) 10 days of service of summon
(b) 15 days of service of summon
(c) 30 days of service of summon
(d) 60 days of service of summon.
Ans. (a)
33. When the State fails to administrative directions given by Union under Article 256 of the Constitution:
(a) Parliament may compel the State to execute the said directions
(b) The Governor may dissolve the State Legislature
(c) The President may presume that constitutional machinery in the State has failed
(d) The President may impose emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution.
Ans. (a)
34. When the emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution is proclaimed, the President of India has a power to suspend the fundamental rights enshrined in Part III, however it is not possible to suspend the rights contained in which of the following Articles even during emergency:
(a) 20 and 21
(b) 19 and 20
(c) 21 and 22
(d) 19, 20 and 21.
Ans. (a)
35. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ___________ petition in which a decree for restitution of conjugal rights has been passed to apply to the court for a decree for divorce by showing that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights as between the parties of the marriage for a period of one year or upwards after passing of the decree.
A. Does not permit any party to that
B. Does not permit the party against whom the
C. Does permit any party to that
D. Does permit any person related to either party to that
Ans: C
36. Leave of court for filling of the petition for divorce to a decree for judicial separation.
A. Is required, subsequent
B. Is required, preceding
C. May be required, subsequent
D. Is not required, subsequent
Ans: D
37. It__________ that the husband___________ of the offences under section 13(2)(ii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, in any criminal proceedings, for relief to be granted under the same clause.
A. Is not necessary, should have been convicted
B. Is necessary, should have been convicted
C. May be necessary, should have been convicted
D. May be necessary, should not have been
Ans: A
38. __________ can apply for relief under section 13(2)(ii)of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
A. Husband
B. Wife
C. Both husband and wife
D. Wife or her relatives
Ans: B
39. The section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 can be interpreted to mean that a decree under the provisions of section 13A_________ be granted instead of decree under section 13, when the court_____________ grant a decree under provisions of section 13.
A. Should, cannot
B. May, cannot
C. Should, must
D. May, must
Ans: D
40. _________ the requirements of section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are fulfilled, a decree under provisions of section 13 B_________ be refused by the court.
A. When all, can still
B. When three of, may
C. When all, cannot
D. When even one of, cannot
Ans: C
41. A decree obtained under section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 by _____ can _______ recalled by the court in exercise of its appellate power.
A. Collusion, be
B. Practicing fraud, not be
C. Mutual consent, be
D. Practicing fraud, be
Ans: D
42. Which of the following is correct regarding minimum possible amount of mahr?
A. There is no minimum limit under Shia law
B. There is limit of 10 dirhams under Sunni Law
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is nearest in meaning to the phrase “debitor non prasesumitur donare “?
A. Debtor is presumed to make gift
B. Debtor is presumed not to make gift
C. Debtor can promise to make donation
D. Debtor is not presumed to donate
Ans: B
44. The maxim of “debitor non prasesumitur donare” with regards to payment of mahr______.
A. Is applicable in case of husband and wife governed by Shia law
B. Is applicable in case of husband and wife governed by Sunni law
C. Is applicable in both A and B
D. Is not applicable in either A or B
Ans: D
45. What is the period of limitation for suing for prompt mahr?
A. Two years from the date of demand
B. Two years from the date of refusal
C. Three years from the date of demand and refusal
D. Two years from the date of demand and refusal
Ans: C
46. Which of the following statements is true regarding prompt mahr?
A. In case of divorce, the limitation period for suit of recovery of mahr must start from the date of divorce
B. Consummation of marriage converts prompt dower into deferred dower
C. The wife cannot bring suit for recovery of prompt dower after consummation of marriage
D. None of these
Ans: D
47. Which of the following statements is true regarding the property retained in lieu of dower?
A. The wife is entitled to rents on the property but not profit
B. The wife is entitled to profits but not rent
C. Wife is entitled to use rents and profits as compensation of interest on her dower debt
D. None of these
Ans: C
48. To constitute a bailment, the actual or constructive possession of specific movable property (goods) must be vacated by:
A. its owner or possessor (bailor)
B. his agent duly authorised for that purpose, in favour of another per son (the bailee)
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
49. To enable the surety to enforce his right against the principal-debtor:
A. the debt itself must subsist
B. the remedy of the surety against the principal-debtor must remain unpaired
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
50. To which of the following the lien claimable under S. 221 of the Indian Contract Act is confined to?
A. Commission
B. Disbursement
C. Services in respect of the specific property
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
51. To which of the following the scope of Section 2 of the Indian Contract Act is limited?
I. to real property
II. to covenant running with the land
III. to cases where the instrument is not merely for the benefit of the third party but purports to contain a grant to or covenant with him
IV. to deeds strictly inter partes
A. I, III, V, VI
B. III, IV, VI
C. II, V, VI
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
52. Unconscionable contract is an:
A. Agreement that is so outrageously unfair to one party that a Court refuses to enforce it in a Court of law
B. Agreement that is so outrageously unfair to one party which can still be enforced it in a Court of law
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
53. Which of the following deals with reimbursement of person paying money due by another, in payment of which he is interested in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 68
B. Section 50
C. Section 69
D. Section 59
Ans. (C)
54. Which of the following deals with representation of principal by sub-agent properly appointed in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 180
B. Section 192
C. Section 185
D. Section 181
Ans. (B)
55. Which of the following deals with skill and diligence required from agent in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 211
B. Section 212
C. Section 215
D. Section 210
Ans. (B)
56. Which of the following deals with surety not discharged when agreement made with third person to give time to principal-debtor in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 131
B. Section 135
C. Section 132
D. Section 136
Ans. (D)
57. Which of the following deals with surety’s liability in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A. Section 122
B. Section 126
C. Section 129
D. Section 128
Ans. (D)
58. Which of the following acts repealed Section 30 sub section (2) of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act, 1956
B. Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
C. Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850
D. There was no such section
Ans. A
59. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 contains how many chapters?
A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Four
Ans. D
60. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 contains how many Sections?
A. 31
B. 28
C. 33
D.35
Ans. A
61. How many sections are there in Chapter II of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A. 27
B. 25
C. 28
D. 31
Ans. B
62. How many sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with “General provisions relating to succession?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
Ans. D
63. Which of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with “overriding effects of the Act”?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Ans. B
64. Which of the following principles does not normally allow the Court to enforce the performance of a contract which requires involves continuous act?
A. It is not the duty of the Court of giving effect to the terms of contract
B. The Court fees are very high for the purpose of giving effect to the terms of contract
C. The Court cannot stop its normal functions for the purpose of giving effect to the terms of contract which cannot be conveniently supervised or enforced by the Court itself
D. None of these
Ans. C
65. Which of the following presumptions raised by s. 10, Specific Relief Act, 1963 is rebuttable?
A. That compensation would not be adequate in the case of transfer of immovable property
B. That it would be adequate in case of breach of transfer of movable property
C. either (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. A
66. Which of the following presumptions are raised by s. 10, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. That compensation would not be adequate in the case of transfer of immovable property
B. That it would be adequate in case of breach of transfer of movable property
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
law of trusts
67. In a trust there are seven trustees and four of them are given responsibility for selling the property of the trust. The trust deed states there must be minimum three trustees for the purpose of selling the trust property. One of the four dies, which of the following statements will hold true?
A. The remaining three trustees can go ahead and exercise the authority
B. The remaining three will be disqualified from taking decision unless one more person is authorised or the number of persons having authority is reduced to three
C. The remaining three cannot exercise their authority but all the remaining six trustees can come together and exercise the authority
D. The remaining three cannot exercise the authority but the majority of the remaining trustees can exercise the authority
Ans: A
68. Chapter seven of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 deals with matters pertaining to________.
A. Extinction of the trust
B. Rights and liabilities of the beneficiaries
C. Vacating the office of the trustee
D. Rights and liabilities of the trustees
Ans: C
69. Which of the following is true of the occupation of property by a tenant?
A. It ordinarily affects one who would take a transfer of that property with notice if that tenant’s rights
B. If he chooses to make no inquiry of the tenant, he cannot claim to be a transferee without notice
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
70. ______________ are not covered by the provisions of Indian Trusts Act, 1882.
A. Wakf
B. Mutual relationship of members of Hindu undivided family
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
71. In which of the following cases can a trustee delegate his responsibility under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
A. When the delegation is to co-trustees
B. When delegation is in regular course of business
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
72. Which of the following is the most important part of the decree?
A. The portion where the Court approves the decree
B. The portion where the Court orders the parties to submit specific documents
C. The portion where the Court directs the contract to be specifically performed
D. None of these
Ans: C
73. Which of the following is the appropriate method of compelling a defendant to perform a positive obligation of his own under the contract?
A. Specific Relief
B. Specific Performance
C. Specific Act
D. None of these
Ans: B
74. Which of the following is not a ‘contract for the purpose of the company’ within the meaning of clause (g) of s. 15, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. A contract of sale between a vendor and someone on behalf of a non-existing cooperative society
B. A contract by a person with the promoters of a company to take certain number of shares of the company
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
75. Under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, which of the following can be considered valid subject matters of the trust?
A. A 25 years old car which is not road worthy
B. A Boeing 729, mortgaged with HSBC Bank
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
76. During the scarcity of potatoes, long queues were made outside the defendant’s shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetable used to sell only 1 kg of potatoes per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops- keepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant. Which one of the following decisions will be correct in this suit?
A. The defendant is liable for nuisance
B. The defendant is not liable for nuisance
C. The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in their favour
D. The defendant is liable to pay damage to the plaintiff
Ans: B
77. If a judge finds a defendant liable and requires the defendant to report to prison, then the defendant has committed
A. A tort
B. Tortious conduct
C. A crime
D. A tortfeasor
Ans: C
78. Which of the following is false about the suit for recovery of possession?
A. It can filed by the person dispossessed or any of the persons dispossessed
B. it can be filed by two persons who is in exclusive possession of immovable property, whether as agent of that or principal or both
C. A person cannot sue partial possession where the dispossession is partial
D. None of them
Ans: C
79. Which of the following is false about s. 6, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. No suit under this section shall be brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession or against the Government
B. No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section, nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed
C. Nothing in this section shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to such property and to recover possession thereof
D. None of them
Ans: D
80. If a court was to examine a newly-enacted statute, to determine the validity of that law, that process involves
A. Trespass on the case
B. Legal treatises
C. Filing of writs
D. Judicial review
Ans: D
81. A synonym for duty is
A. Obligation
B. Damages
C. Consent
D. Actual causation
Ans: A
82. Whether a cause of action exists for negligence per se will involve
A. The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur
B. A question of fact
C. A question of law
D. B and C only
Ans: D
83. Which of the following expressions are not used in the Indian Trust Act, 1882?
A. Express Trust
B. Implied Trust
C. Constructive Trust
D. All of these
Ans: D
84. A person whose rights in land are superior to everyone else is called a(n)
A. Lessee
B. Possessor
C. Owner
D. Lessor
Ans: C
85. Which of the following if are absent or cannot be implied, the partnership will be at will?
A. Provisions as to the duration of their partnership
B. Provisions for the determination of their partnership
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
86. Where A and B purchase a tea shop, contributing towards the price in equal moieties, and lease the common property for rent and divide the rent equally between themselves. What kind of relationship is constituted between them?
A. Co-owners
B. Partners
C. either (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A
87. Where one of the clauses of the agreement states that a partner may dissociate from the partnership, it envisages which of the following situations?
A. One of the partners wants to dissolve the business
B. One of the partners wants to retire from business
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
88. At which place in Mandi District has the Department of Ayurveda set-up a herbal garden?
A. Sarkaghat
B. Sunder Nagar
C. Karsog
D. Joginder Nagar
Ans: D
89. Who were the two prominent leaders of Home Rule League?
A. Tilak and Annie Besant
B. Tilak and Feroz Shah Mehta
C. Annie Besant and B.C Pal
D. B.C Pal and Tilak
Ans: A
90. Who has been given the 2011 Sahitya Academy Award?
A. Namavar Singh
B. Doodhnath Singh
C. Kashinath Singh
D. Rajendra Yadavv
Ans: C
91. The man who led the Revolt in Bihar was
A. Amar Singh
B. Bhanwar Singh
C. Nana Sahib
D. None of the above
Ans: A
92. Who started ‘Bengalee’, a famous newspaper of Calcutta?
A. W. C. Banerjee
B. Surendranath Banerjee
C. R. D. Banerjee
D. B.C. Pal
Ans: B
93. Which of the following is fresh water lake?
A. Phalodi
B. Koleru
C. Shambhar
D. Pullicut
Ans: B
94. Which one is the southern-most mountain range of India?
A. Nilgiri Range
B. Annamalai Range
C. Nallamalai Range
D. Cardamam Hills
Ans: D
95. A bank manager and a Class IV employee, a temporary sweeper cheated the bank by sanctioning loan to fictitious persons by forging loan documents. The sweeper had no benefit of this fraud.
A. the bank manager and the sweeper are both entitled to conviction
B. only the bank manager is entitled to conviction
C. the sweeper is entitled to acquittal as he has the benefit of doubt available to him
D. both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
96. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to establish that a partnership is at will?
A. There should be no provision in the contract between the partners for the duration of their partnership
B. There should be no provision in the contract for the determination of that contract
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
97. Who is the founder of Jainism in India:
(a) Gautama
(b) Mahavira
(c) Chandragupta
(d) Ashoka.
Ans. (b)
98. Which of the following group is an offence against the State?
I. Waging or attempting or conspiring to wage, or collecting men and ammunition to wage war against the Government of India.
II. Assaulting President, or Governor of a state with intent to compel or restrain the exercises of any unlawful power
III. Sedition
IV. Permitting or aiding or negligently suffering the escape of, or rescuing or harbouring, a State prisoner
A. I, III
B. II
C. Ill, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
99. Who among the following prominently fought for and got widow remarriage legalized?
A. Annie Besant
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C. M.G. Ranade
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Ans: B
100. Sati system was abolished by
A. Lord Warren Hastings
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Lord William Bentinck
D. Lord Ripon
Ans: C
101. Railways and telegraph were introduced in India in 1853 by:
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Irwin.
Ans. (a)
102. Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on:
(a) 13 April 1918
(b) 13 April 1916
(c) 13 April 1919
(d) 13 April 1915
Ans. (c)
103. In which year the British for the first time established universities in India:
(a) 1882
(b) 1887
(c) 1857
(d) 1892
Ans. (c)
104. Who constructed Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi:
(a) Haji Begum
(b) Humayun
(c) Babur
(d) Akbar.
Ans. (a)
105. Which of the following are the most abundant constituents of earth’s crust:
(a) Limestone
(b) Sandstone
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) Sedimentary rocks.
Ans. (c)
106. The earth’s temperature at its core is about:
(a) 10,000°C
(b) 22,000°C
(c) 200°C
(d) 6000°C.
Ans. (d)
107. The 100th Constitution Amendment Act, 2015 amends the first Schedule of the Constitution in paragraphs relating to the territories of State of Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya and Tripura to give effect to:
(a) An agreement and protocol entered into by India and Bangladesh on the acquiring and transfer of territories between the two countries.
(b) An agreement entered into by India and Nepal on the acquiring and transfer of territories between the two countries
(c) An agreement entered into by India and Pakistan on the acquiring and transfer of territories between the two countries
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
108. Which of the following Acts was passed by the British in the year 1856:
(a) Widow Remarriage Act
(b) Child Marriage Restraint Act
(c) Sati Prohibition Act
(d) Indian Contract Act.
Ans. (a)
109. Who is the present Attorney-General of India:
(a) Mukul Rohatgi
(b) Ranjit Kumar
(c) Goolam E. Vahanvati
(d) Soli J. Sorabjee.
Ans. (a)
110. It is the duty of the State to safeguard forests and wildlife under:
(a) Article 48 of Constitution of India
(b) Article 48A of Constitution of India
(c) Article 49 of Constitution of India
(d) Article 50 of Constitution of India.
Ans. (b)
111. The Constitution of India in Part IVA, Article 51A(a) confers the duties on this subject. It reads as “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag and the national anthem. This provision was inserted in Constitution in 1976 by:
(a) Constitution 42nd Amendment
(b) Constitution 43rd Amendment
(c) Constitution 44th Amendment
(d) Constitution 45th Amendment.
Ans. (a)
112. The International Court of Justice is a:
(a) Principal organ of UN
(b) European Union Organisation
(c) Subsidiary Organ of UN
(d) Itself an independent Institution.
Ans. (a)
113. Who has been appointed the new Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India:
(a) Arundhati Bhattacharya
(b) Viral Acharya
(c) Ajay Tyagi
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
114. The number of High Court in India is:
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 21
(d) 28
Ans. (b)
115. Which of the following districts will become the India’s first carbon neutral district:
(a) Majuli
(b) Mysuru
(c) Barmer
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
116. Pulitzer Prizes are given by:
(a) Sydney Peace Foundation
(b) Commonwealth Writers Association
(c) World Food Organisation
(d) Columbia University, USA.
Ans. (d)
117. United Nations in its report “World Population Prospects, 2015” has projected world population by the end of 2050 at:
(a) 9.7 billion
(b) 9.0 billion
(c) 10.2 billion
(d) 10 billion.
Ans. (a)
118. United Nations in its report “World Population Prospects, 2015” has projected that India will be the world’s largest populous country by passing China by the year:
(a) 2022
(b) 2028
(c) 2035
(d) 2050.
Ans. (a)
119. Which among the following countries became 193rd member of United Nations:
(a) South Sudan
(b) Tonga in 1999
(c) Slovakia in 1993
(d) Tejakistan in 1992.
Ans. (a)
120. The judges of the International Court of Justice are selected for a term of:
(a) 9 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) no limits.
Ans. (a)
121. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Water
(d) Air
Ans. (a)
122. The science of Ornithology deals with:
(a) Birds
(b) Fossils
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles.
Ans. (a)
123. INSAT – 2C and INSAT – 2D are launched by:
(a) Ariane
(b) SLV-3
(c) PSLV
(d) SLV-2.
Ans. (a)
124. Res sub judice means:
A. Which is pending judgment
B. Which is pending judicial adjudication
C. Which is pending judicial inquiry
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
125. Which of the following deals with power of Court to fix a date of appearance in the Court where plaint is to be filed after its return in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 30C
B. Order 9, Rule 12
C. Order 7, Rule 10A
D. Order 10, Rule 22
Ans. (C)
126. What was the earlier name of INSAT – 2DT:
(a) Arabsat – 2C
(b) Arabsat – 1C
(c) Arabsat-2B
(d) Arabsat-IB.
Ans. (b)
127. According to Austin the science of jurisprudence is concerned with:
(a) Natural law
(b) Divine law
(c) Positive law
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
128. Who defined law “as an assemblage of signs, declarative of a volition, conceived or adopted by the Sovereign in a State, concerning the conduct to be observed in a certain case by a certain person or class of persons:
(a) Austin
(b) Blackstone
(c) Savigny
(d) Bentham.
Ans. (d)
129. Which conference was regarded as the starting point for the non-aligned or neutralist movement:
(a) UNO general meet in 1958
(b) Bandung (Indonesia) conference of Afro- Asian nations in April, 1955
(c) NAM summit of 1965
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
130. Who was the founder of analytical approach:
(a) HLA Hart
(b) Savigny
(c) Jeremy Bentham
(d) Austin
Ans. (c)
131. Bentham’s legal theory is called:
(a) Command theory
(b) Grundnorm
(c) Utilitarian individualism
(d) Racial theory of law.
Ans. (c)
132. When did India – China war took place:
(a) 1962
(b) 1965
(c) 1971
(d) 1999.
Ans. (a)
133. Which Bollywood actress has been recently appointed at the new Brand Ambassador of the Swach Bharat Campaign:
(a) Priyanka Chopra
(b) Anuskha Sharma
(c) Aishwarya Rai
(d) Deepika Padukone.
Ans. (b)