Bihar Judicial Services Exam Preliminary Questions and Answers)

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Are you preparing for Bihar Judicial Services preliminary examination? Here are few preliminary questions and answers on Law and GK that will help you in clearing the exam!

1. Telangana is the newest State formed by splitting Andhra Pradesh on June 2, 2014. It is:

(a) 29th State of India

(b) 30th State of India

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

2. Who determines the salaries and allowances of members of the Council of Ministers in the State:

(a) these are laid down in the Constitution

(b) Parliament

(d) State Legislature.

Ans. (d)

3. Members of Legislative Assembly are elected for a term of:

(a) three years

(b) six years

(d) four years.

Ans. (c)

4. The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the Houses of Parliament can be:

(a) 10

(b) 12

(d) 20.

Ans. (c)

5. Rajya Sabha can take initiative in:

(a) censuring a Central Minister

(b) creating a new All India Service

(d) appointing judges.

Ans. (b)

6. Who of the following is considered as the custodian of Lok Sabha:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Leader of the opposition

(d) Speaker.

Ans. (d)

7. Delay in putting in the appearance in a suit under Order XXXVII:

(a) cannot be condoned

(b) can be condoned as a matter of right

(d) either (a) or (b).

Ans. (c)

8. Defendant has to seek leave to defend the suit under Order XXXVII, Rule 3 of CPC:

(a) within 60 days of service of summon for judgment

(b) within 30 days of service of summon for judgment

(d) within 7 days of service of summons for judgment.

Ans. (c)

9. In a criminal case, the Supreme Court will grant special leave to appeal only in those cases:

A. where it is shown that exceptional and special circumstances exist

B. in exist substantial and grave injustice has been done

C. where the case in question presents features of sufficient gravity to warrant a review of the decision appealed against

D. all of them

Ans. (D)

10. Which of the following is, in fact, “a VSAT satellite”:

(a) INSAT-2E

(b) INSAT-3B

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b)

11. ‘Uplink’ and ‘downlink’ is related to which electronic device used in communication satellites:

(a) Transponders

(b) VHRR

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a)

12. According to Austin, “law is command of the Sovereign” the command implies:

(a) Duty

(b) Right

(d) Duty and sanctions.

Ans. (d)

13. Who among the following presides over the joint sittings of the two Houses?

A. Chairman of the Council of States

B. President

C. Speaker of the House of the People

D. Prime Ministers

Ans. (C)

14. Which of the following deals with evasive denial in the Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 5, Rule 30

B. Order 4, Rule 13

C. Order 6, Rule 10

D. Order 8, Rule 4

Ans. D

15. Which of the following deals with the direction of the court to opt for any one mode of alternative dispute resolution in the Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 5, Rule 30

B. Order 10, Rule 1A

C. Order 6, Rule 10

D. Order 8, Rule 22

Ans. B

16. Which of the following deals with the endorsements on copies of admitted entries in books, account and records in the Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 13, Rule 5

B. Order 4, Rule 13

C. Order 6, Rule 10

D. Order 15, Rule 22

Ans. A

17. Suing of partners in name of firm is dealt under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 12, Rule 1

B. Order 10, Rule 9

C. Order 19, Rule 6

D. Order 30, Rule 1

Ans. D

18. Which section applies to both civil and criminal proceedings?

A. Section 44, Indian Evidence Act

B. Section 45, Indian Evidence Act

C. Section 46, Indian Evidence Act

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans. A

19. A has been in possession of landed property for a long time. He produces from his custody deeds relating to the land, showing his title to it. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?

A. the custody is proper

B. the custody is improper

C. it is not sufficient to prove his title without other evidence

D. none of them

Ans. A

20. A hires lodgings of B, and B gives a card on which is written- “Rooms, Rs 200 a month”. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:

A. A cannot prove a verbal agreement that these terms were to include partial board

B. A does not need to prove a verbal agreement that these terms were to include partial board

C. A may prove a verbal agreement that these terms were to include partial board

D. none of them

Ans. C

21. A is accused of a crime. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?

A. the facts that, either before or at the time of, or after the alleged crime, A provided evidence which would tend to give to the facts of the case an appearance favorable to himself

B. that he destroyed or concealed evidence, or prevented the presence or procured the absence of persons who might have been witnesses

C. that he suborned persons to give false evidence respecting it

D. all of them

Ans. D

22. The provisions in Section 48 of the Code of Civil Procedure were incorporated in which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1963?

A. Section 14(2)

B. Section 15(2)

C. Section 16(2)

D. Section 17(2)

Ans. (D)

23. Which of the following are the essential requirements of Section 18, Limitation Act, 1963?

I. An admission or acknowledgment

II. That such acknowledgment must be in respect of a liability in respect of right

III. That it must be made before the expiry of the period of limitation

IV. That it should be in writing and signed by the party against whom such property or right is claimed

A. I, III

B. II, IV

C. I, IV

D. All of these

Ans. (D)

24. Which of the following things are necessary under Section 19, Limitation Act, 1963?

A. Payment

B. Writing recording such payment

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (C)

25. A receipt may be an acknowledgment of the previous debt and be an acknowledgment within Section 18, Limitation Act, 1963 on the satisfaction of which of the following conditions?

A. Acknowledgment must have been made before the expiration of the period prescribed for the suit

B. It must be clear and unambiguous acknowledgment specially admitting liability in respect of the debt sued upon

C. It must be signed by the party of his authorised agent

D. All of these

Ans. (D)

26. Under S. 4(2) of the Interest Act, 1978, the Court can allow interest:

A. Where money or other property has been deposited as security for performance of an obligation imposed by law or by contract, from the date of deposit

B. where the obligation to pay money or restore any property arises by virtue of a fiduciary relationship, from the date of the cause of the action

C. where money or other property is obtained or retained by fraud, from the date of cause of action

D. all of them

Ans. (D)

27. Under Section 18 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, misrepresentation falls under:

A. a statement of fact, which is false, would be misrepresentation if the maker believes it to be true, but which is not justified by the information he possesses

B. any breach of duty which gains an advantage to the person committing it by misleading another to his prejudice, there being no intention to deceive

C. causing a party to an agreement to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement, even though done innocently

D. All of them

Ans. (D)

28. Under Section 19 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the party entitled to avoid, but insisting on performance can be awarded damages in lieu of:

A. performance

B. enforcement

C. either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (C)

29. Under Section 55 of the Indian Contract Act a vendor has no right to make time of the essence of the contract unless:

A. the vendor is able, ready and willing to proceed to completion

B. when the vendor purports to make time of the essence of the contract, the purchaser must be guilty of such default as to entitle the vendor to rescind the contract, subject to it being done by a reasonable notice

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (C)

30. Which of the followings were omitted by the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 (39 of 2005)?

A. Section 4 (a)

B. Section 4 (b)

C. Section 4 (2)

D. Section 4 (2) and Section 4 (a)

Ans. C

31. Which of the following statements is true regarding Section 4 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

A. This section is prospective in nature

B. This section is retrospective in nature

C. Both A and B are true

D. Neither A nor B is true

Ans. A

32. Which of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with “properties on which the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not apply”?

A. Section 4

B. Section 5

C. Section 6

D. Section 7

Ans. B

33. Which of the following properties will The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, not cover?

I. Properties regulated by Indian Succession Act, 1925

II. Properties regulated by Christian Marriage Act

III. Properties regulated by Special Marriage Act

A. I only

B. II and III

C. I and III

D. II and III

Ans. C

34. Which of the following is true of relief of specific performance?

A. It is discretionary

B. It is not merely given because it is lawful but because it is bound by judicial principles

C. It cannot be claimed as a matter of right

D. All of these

Ans. D

35. Which of the following is true of a contract under which the plaintiff has appointed the defendant to cut and remove timber?

A. It is not dependent on volition of parties and cannot be enforced

B. It is dependent on volition of parties and can be enforced

C. It is not dependent on volition of parties and can be enforced

D. None of these

Ans. C

36. In which of the following cases was it held that “A daughter-in-law can claim a share, but only through her husband, in the property of her father-in-law, she cannot claim as a direct heir of the father-in-law”

A. Gurupad v. Hirabai

B. Maritangewa v. Ansuya

C. Pushpalatha N.V.v. V. Padma

D. Sant Ram Dass v. Gurdev Singh

Ans. B

37. Which of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with “Devolution of interest in the property of illom”

A. Section 5

B. Section 6

C. Section 7

D. Section 8

Ans. C

38. For the purposes of Section 19, Limitation Act, 1963 which of the following is true?

A. Where mortgaged land is in the possession of the mortgagee, the receipt of the rent or produce of such land shall be deemed to be payment

B. “Debt” does not include money payable under a decree or order of a Court

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. (C)

39. Living, wages etc. for workers have been mentioned in Article ______ of Indian Constitution.

A. 41

B. 43

C. 43A

D. 42

Ans. B

40. Which of the following is true about the term ‘suit’ in s. 6, Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. It includes proceeding in execution of a decree passed in a suit under this section

B. No appeal, therefore lies from an order made in execution proceedings

C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. C

41. ‘Uniform Civil code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

A. Article 43

B. Article 43A

C. Article 44

D. Article 45

Ans. C

42. According to Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. Which of the following statements regarding public health is/are correct?

I. Article 47 makes improvement of public health a primary duty of the State.

II. In case of need, the local authority should approach the State Government to grant loan or aid, and the latter should supply the money required in view of primary duty of the ‘State’ under Article 47.

A. I and II

B. Only II

C. Only I

D. None

Ans. A

43. Which of the following deals with summons in the Code of Civil Procedure?

A. Order 7, Rule 3

B. Order 2, Rule 2

C. Order 6, Rule 10

D. Order 5, Rule 1

Ans. (D)

44. A leave to defend may be:

(a) refused

(b) granted unconditionally

(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).

Ans. (d)

45. The delay in applying for leave to defend:

(a) can be condoned generally

(b) can be condoned on a sufficient cause being shown

(d) either (a) or (b).

Ans. (b)

46. The basic characteristic of a Federal Constitution is that of Constitution:

(a) is written

(b) provides for division of power in writing

(d) is written and provides for separation of powers.

Ans. (d)

47. The three Lists are mentioned in:

(a) VI Schedule

(b) VII Schedule

(d) IX Schedule.

Ans. (b)

Hindu Law

48. The proviso to Section 14(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, enables the court in ______cases to entertain a petition for a decree of divorce__________________ the statutory period has expired.

A. General, before

B. Very exceptional, before

C. General, after

D. Very exceptional, after

Ans: B

49. Provisions relating to section 14 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are applicable to cases under which of the following sections?

I. Section 10

II. Section 11 and 12

III. Section 13,

IV. Section 13Aand 13B

A. I and II

B. Ill only

C. Ill and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

Ans: C

50. The right to marry any person after a conclusive decree of divorce can be availed ______ whose marriage is dissolved, __________ to again intermarry.

A. By either of the spouse, but leave of court is required for them

B. By the injured party, it is also open for both the parties

C. By either of the spouse, it is also open to the parties

D. After two years of the passing of decree by either of the spouse, but leave of court is required

Ans: C

51. Which of the following Articles says “The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”?

A. Article 44

B. Article 45

C. Article 43A

D. Article 46

Ans. B

52. In case of decrees passed under section 14 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the court has the discretion to impose the condition that the decree shall not operate until after the expiry of ________

A. one year from the date of marriage

B. one year from the passing of decree

C. period the court deems necessary

D. period set under Criminal Law Procedure

Ans: A

53. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 before amendment ________.

A. It was not possible for a child of void marriage to get protection unless a decree of nullity was passed

B. It was possible for a child of void marriage to get protection even without passing of decree of nullity

C. It was not possible for divorced couple to intermarry before three years statutory period

D. It was not possible for divorced couple to intermarry before two year statutory period

Ans: A

54. A prior subsisting marriage is a_______________ which renders marriage with any person whose prior marriage is subsisting______ .

A. Criminal liability, voidable

B. Civil liability, voidable

C. Criminal liability, void

D. Civil liability, void

Ans: D

55. The jurisdiction of cases dealing with Section 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, ________ governed by section 19 of the Act, ________ by section 177 of the Criminal Procedure Code.

A. May not be, but may be governed

B. Are, and also

C. Will not be, but will be governed

D. Are, and may also be governed

Ans: C

Mohammadan Law

56. Which of the following statements hold true regarding wife’s right of property retained in lieu of dower?

A. She has the right to alienate the property to the extent of her debt

B. She has the right to alienate the property to the extent of her share in the property

C. She has no right to alienated the property under Hanafi law

D. She has the right to alienate by mortgage, but not by sale or gift

Ans: B

57. Which of the following definitions is literal definition of the phrase kharchi-i-pandan’?

A. Expenses for eating pan

B. Personal allowance to the wife

C. Betel box expenses

D. None of these

Ans: C

58. Section 16(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with issues arising out of which of the following sections?

A. Section 11

B. Section 12

C. Section 13

D. Section 13A and section 13B

Ans: A

59. It is_______ whether any proceedings has taken place. The protection given under section 16(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ___________ , subject to rule under 16(3).

A. Material, is complete only when the required proceedings have taken place

B. Material, may not be complete without the proper proceedings

C. Immaterial, is complete

D. None of the above

Ans: C

60. Which of the following is the literal definition of the phrase ‘mewa khori’?

A. Expenses for eating fruits

B. Expenses on eating dry fruits

C. Wasting money on eating dry fruits

D. Eating fruits

Ans: D

61. Under which of the following conditions is written talak valid in case of Shia law?

A. It is invalid in all the cases

B. It is valid in all the cases

C. Where husband is incapable of pronouncing the talak orally

D. Where the distance between wife and husband is more than 250 kilometers

Ans: C

62. Which of the following statements hold true for talak-ul- biddat?

A. There must be three pronouncements

B. The pronouncements must be made during period between menstruations

C. There can be intercourse between the pronouncements

D. It cannot be revoked once the pronouncement is made

Ans: D

63. Which of the following forms of divorce is also known as heretical divorce?

A. Talak hasan

B. Talak-ul-biddat

C. Talak-ul-sunnat

D. Talak ahsan

Ans: B

64. B creates a trust in favour of his son D by a testamentary instrument. He asks Tl, T2 and T3 to act as trustees. T2 accepts the trust, but both Tl and T3 reject it. Under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, which of the following statement will apply?

A. The trust will not be created, and property will rest with the heirs of B

B. The trust will be created, but it will remain voidable until D rectifies it

C. The trust will be created with T2 as a sole trustee

D. The trust will not be created and property will transfer to D

Ans: C

65. B creates a trust in favour of A and appoints T as trustee in a testamentary instrument. The trust property includes gold in bank lockers nominated to C Rs.75,000 lend to 3 debtors without security and two residential houses. B dies in a road accident and T accepts the trusteeship. Arrange the following actions of T, according to priority.

I. He must as soon as possible recover the money from debtors

II. He must as soon as possible recover the contents of the bank lockers

A. I and then II

B. II and then I

C. II only

D. None of these

Ans: A

66. Section 16(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with issues arising out of which of the following sections?

A. Section 11

B. Section 12

C. Section 13

D. Section 13A and section 13B

Ans: B

67. B by way of trust deed creates a trust with T as trustee. The trust is for the benefit of B1, after B1’s death for benefit of his eldest son B2, after B2’s death for the benefit of his eldest son B3 and so on. The trust property includes three residential houses situated around a small fresh water lake. Provisions of the trust include right of beneficiary to occupy one of the residential property, and enjoyment of the use of the lake. B1 wants to get the lake filled and construct a mall. Which of the following statements will apply under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?

A. B1 is within his rights to do so under section 56 of the Act

B. B1 does not have any right, T is within his right to stop him under section 18 of the Act

C. B1 can with the agreement of T can get the mall constructed

D. B1 is within his rights to do so under section 61 of the Act

Ans: B

68. Which of the following does s. 23, Specific Relief Act, 1963 makes clear?

A. A contract, otherwise proper to be specifically enforced, may be so enforced, though a sum may be named in it as the amount to be paid in case of its breach and the party in default is willing to pay the same

B. Where an option is given by the contract to a party either to pay or to carry out the other terms of the contract, the case falls outside the purview of the provision

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans: B

69. Which of the following did the Lord Cairn’s Act, 1858 conferred upon the Courts in England?

A. It conferred jurisdiction upon equity Courts to award damages also so that they could be administered separately by one different Court

B. It conferred jurisdiction upon equity Courts to award damages also so that both could be administered by one court

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans: B

70. Which of the following deals with who may obtain specific performance in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Section 12

B. Section 16

C. Section 23

D. Section 15

Ans: D

71. Which of the following deals with when cancellation may be ordered in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Section 12

B. Section 29

C. Section 23

D. Section 31

Ans: D

72. B by way of testamentary instrument made a trust in favour of his minor son B, with T as a trustee. T has to hand over 50% of the property including accumulated income on B attaining age of 21 and the rest when he attains the age of 41. B before attaining the age of 18 met with an accident, medical expenses for his surgery and treatment are around Rs.3,00,000. The accumulated income from the property on the date of accident is around Rs.5,00,000 Legal guardian of B is struggling with the expenses, he cannot afford the surgery and treatment cost. T comes to you and asks you for suggestions. What will you suggest to T?

A. To apply to court, take permission and then transfer Rs.3,00,000 to B’s guardian

B. To pray to God

C. To pay whatever shortfall is there at his own discretion, there is no need for court permission to pay upto Rs.5,00,000

D. To pay the amount with consent of B or B’s guardian

Ans: C

73. Which of the following deals with the rights of purchaser or lessee against person with no title or imperfect title in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Section 12

B. Section 15

C. Section 23

D. Section 13

Ans: D

74. Libel is to a written statement as slander is to a

A. Material misstatement

B. False statement

C. Oral statement

D. Recorded statement

Ans: C

75. For an action in misrepresentation, plaintiff has to show that the inaccurate information was-

A. Substantial

B. Unreasonable

C. Designed to induce reasonable reliance

D. Intentionally provided

Ans: C

76. The reason why bad faith breach of contract is an action in tort and not in damages is because of

A. How the breach proximately caused injury to the plaintiff

B. The amount in damages

C. Because of the intentional interference of a contractual relationship

D. Because of a breach in a duty of good faith

Ans: D

77. A and B were partners in a business. They entered into a contract with the Government. B, by this act and conduct, led the Government to cancel the contract since he did not allow A’s agent to work. Still A continued with the contract. But B fraudulently induced Government to terminate the contract and grant the same in his favour-A served notice to which B denied partnership. A, therefore, filed suit for damages and compensation on the ground that the contract with the government was for the benefit of the partnership. Which of the following is the appropriate conclusion of the matter under section 10, Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

A. B committed breach and was liable to pay damages since A and B had later denied partnership to A

B. B committed breach but was not liable to pay damages since A and B had been partners in the partnership business

C. B committed breach and was liable to pay damages since A and B had been partners in the partnership business

D. None of these

Ans: C

78. The powers conferred by section 11, Indian Partnership Act, 1932 on the partners to determine their mutual rights and duties by a contract is subject to the provisions of which of the following sections of the same?

A. Section 41

B. Section 42

C. Section 43

D. Section 44

Ans: D

79. Which of the following deals with the recovery of specific immovable property in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Section 2

B. Section 5

C. Section 3

D. Section 4

Ans: B

80. Where two brothers L and K were carrying on the business jointly in partnership and L kept himself in the background, because he had put himself in the wrong with the Forest Department, a promissory note by K must be deemed to have been executed by both K and L. In a suit on such a pronote against both L and K which of the following is an appropriate conclusion of this case?

A. L cannot escape liability on the ground that he was separate from his brother and

B. L had not executed the promote

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans: C

81. Under which of the following clauses of section 12, Indian Partnership Act, 1932, every partner has a right to take part in the conduct of the business and it is only where difference arises as to ordinary matters connected with the business of the firm that the same has to be decided by the majority of the partners?

A. Clause (a)

B. Clause (b)

C. Clause (c)

D. Clause (d)

Ans: A

82. Often, when a court has to characterize a lawsuit as an action in private nuisance or public nuisance, the court will look at what?

A. Whether the nuisance violated criminal law

B. The amount of the damages claimed

C. Whether the defendant is willing to settle the case

D. Who was most affected by the alleged nuisance

Ans: D

83. Before a majority can take a decision binding on the minority which of the following conditions have to be fulfilled?

A. The minority must be consulted

B. The majority must act in good faith

C. The majority must act for the welfare of the firm and not for a purpose which is detrimental to the welfare of the firm

D. All of these

Ans: D

84. Where was Mahatma Gandhi arrested in connection with Quite India Movement?

A. Bombay

B. Madras

C. Calcutta

D. New Delhi

Ans: A

85. The biggest producer of spices in India is

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Punjab

Ans: B

86. Who replaced Clive as Governor of Bengal and forced Mir Zafar to abdicate and placed Mir Qasim on the throne?

A. Huroz

B. Holwell

C. Hastings

D. Cornwallis

Ans: B

87. In which country Asian Summit was postponed in April 2009 due to Anti-Government Protests?

A. Singapore

B. Philippines

C. Burma (Myanmar)

D. Thailand

Ans: D

88. Which of the following fluids would cool a’/2 27. inch thick piece of steel the fastest?

A. Motor oil

B. 25% salt water solution

C. 5% salt water solution

D. Pure water

Ans: A

89. The planet closest to the Sun is

A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Earth

D. Mars

Ans: A

90. In a Supreme Court case the father, mother and son were convicted for causing injury to the injured victim and father was convicted u/s 326 for causing head injury, mother was only sentenced to pay a fine of Rs. 1500 and son was convicted u/s 324 and was sentenced to 1- 1/2 years imprisonment which was considered excessive and the same was reduced to the period already undergone and his fine portion was also ordered to be deleted. In which of the following was it upheld?

A. Kail Singh v. State, 2002

B. Sucha Singh v. State of Punjab, 2001

C. Kuppan v. State of Tamil Nadu, 2000

D. Anup Singh v. State of West Bengal, 1997

Ans: C

91. Which of the following Islands of the Pacific Ocean belongs to Melanesia group of Islands?

A. Soloman Island

B. Gilbert Island

C. Society Island

D. Marshall Island

Ans: A

92. The first Nuclear reactor of India is named

A. Apsara

B. Kamini

C. Rohini

D. Urvashi

Ans: A

93. Z is sitting in moored boat on a river. A unfastens the moorings, and thus intentionally causes the boat to drift down the stream. Here A intentionally causes motion to Z and he does this by disposing substances in such a manner that the motion is produced without any other action on any person’s part. A has therefore intentionally used force to Z without Z’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending or knowing it to be likely that this use of force will cause injury, fear or annoyance to Z.

A. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 345, IPC

B. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 350, IPC

C. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 355, IPC

D. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 358, IPC

Ans: B

94. Who was better known as Frontier Gandhi:

(a) Abdul Gaffar Khan

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

95. Matangini Hazra was a martyr of the:

(a) Mutiny of 1857

(b) Anti-Partition Movement of 1905

(d) Naval Mutiny.

Ans. (c)

96. Z is riding in chariot. A lashes Z’s horses, and thereby causes them to quicken their pace. Here A has caused change of motion to Z by inducing the animals to change their motion. A has therefore used force to Z and A has done this without Z’s consent, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby injure, frighten or annoy Z.

A. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 345, IPC

B. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 350, IPC

C. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 355, IPC

D. A has used criminal force to Z under Section 358, IPC

Ans: B

97. Omission to apprehend, or sufferance of escape on part of public servant, in cases not otherwise provided for: In case of intentional omission or sufferance is dealt under & In case of negligent omission or sufferance

A. Section 224A of IPC

B. Section 225A of IPC

C. Section 226A of IPC

D. Section 227A of IPC

Ans: B

98. Who set music to Mohammad Iqbal’s ‘Sare Jahan Se Achcha’:

(a) Pandit Ravi Shankar

(b) Hariharan Prasad Chaurasia and Shiv Kumar Sharma

(d) C. Ramachandra.

Ans. (c)

99. The “Twin City” in India which is geographically combined by a mere horizontal road is:

(a) Hyderabad and Secunderabad

(b) Delhi and Gurgaon

(d) Cuttack and Bhubaneshwar.

Ans. (a)

100. Which of the following States in India has the smallest area under forest:

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Jharkhand

(d) Haryana.

Ans. (d)

101. The Home Rule League was started by:

(a) Maulana Azad

(b) Nana Deshmukh

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans. (c)

102. Who is the present Solicitor-General of India:

(a) Ranjit Kumar

(b) Y. Rohit Sharma

(d) Ashwini Kumar.

Ans. (a)

103. The Head of State in India is:

(a) Single executive

(b) Plural executive

(d) Titular executive.

Ans. (d)

104. The second President of the Indian Republic was:

(a) V.V. Giri

(b) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(d) Dr. Zakir Hussain.

Ans. (b)

105. Who is third person after Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed and Giani Zail Singh to directly occupy Rashtrapati Bhawan from the Union Cabinet:

(a) Shankar Dayal Sharma

(b) R. Venkatraman

(d) Pranab Mukherjee.

Ans. (d)

106. Which Bollywood personality has been appointed at the UNICEF’s newest Global Goodwill Ambassador:

(a) Priyanka Chopra

(b) Aishwarya Rai

(d) Shahrukh Khan.

Ans. (a)

107. Which of the following Committee has been constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Cyber Security:

(a) Rangarajan Committee

(b) Srikrishna Committee

(d) Meena Hemachandra Committee.

Ans. (d)

108. Which High Court has recently termed the practice of triple talaq among Muslims as unconstitutional:

(a) Delhi High Court

(b) Madras High Court

(d) Allahabad High Court.

Ans. (d)

109. When was India’s first nuclear test conducted:

(a) 1972

(b) 1974

(d) 1999.

Ans. (b)

110. Who amongst the following Indians has featured in the list of “world’s 100 most influential women” selected by Time Magazine:

(a) Pratibha Patil

(b) Sonia Gandhi

(d) Jayalalitha.

Ans. (a)

111. Which of the following statement is true about the Shimla agreement:

(a) It aimed at normalisation of relationship between the two countries after the 1971 war

(b) The principle of bilateralism agreed to by both the countries and they decided to withdraw from the territories seized during the 1971 conflict

(d) all of the above.

Ans. (d)

112. Forward Markets Commission (FMC) has been merged with:

(a) SEBI

(b) RBI

(d) FCI.

Ans. (a)

113. Name the woman who is ranked first in the Asia Pacific most powerful women list by Fortune Magazine released in September, 2015:

(a) Shikha Sharma

(b) Chanda Kochhal

(d) Arundhati Bhattacharya.

Ans. (b)

114. The inflation in percentage, which regularly appears in Newspapers on a weekly basis is based on:

(a) Wholesale Price Index

(b) Consumer Price Index

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

115. Who among the following freedom fighters were the President and Chairman of the Constituent Assembly respectively:

(a) Rajendra Prasad and B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and M.K. Gandhi

(d) Sardar Patel and Lai Bahadur Shastri.

Ans. (a)

116. President is the head of the Union Executive, such power has been given to him by:

(a) Constitution of India

(b) Parliament

(d) Supreme Court of India.

Ans. (a)

117. Which of the following organisations publishes the “World Investment Report” annually:

(a) WTO

(b) UNCTAD

(d) World Bank.

Ans. (b)

118. Headquarters of International Military Tribunal is:

(a) Geneva

(b) New York

(d) Nuremberg.

Ans. (d)

119. For respiration, deep sea divers use a mixture of:

(a) Oxygen and carbon dioxide

(b) Hydrogen and oxygen

(d) Oxygen and helium.

Ans. (d)

120. Which among the following statement is true:

(a) International Court of Justice is established by the Charter of United Nations

(b) International Court of Justice is established by the European Community

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a)

121. Which among the statement is correct in respect of International Court of Justice:

(a) situated at Hague and according to its statute, chambers provided for in articles 26 and 29 can sit and exercise their functions elsewhere than Hague

(b) no other place other than Hague is possible for sitting

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a)

122. Which one of the following diseases is caused due to presence of excess arsenic in water:

(a) Alzheimer’s disease

(b) Parkinson’s disease

(d) Liver Cirrhosis.

Ans. (c)

123. Which of the following represents ISRO’s first attempt to make an international impact in the field of communication satellites:

(a) INSAT-2B .

(b) INSAT-2C

(d) INSAT -2E.

Ans. (d)

124. The first six lectures of Austin were published under the title:

(a) The province of jurisprudence determined

(b) Law and justice

(d) Command theory.

Ans. (a)

125. The word positivism was started by:

(a) Montesquieu

(b) Hegel

(d) Aguste Comte.

Ans. (d)

Judicial Services, Bihar, Bihar Judicial Services Exam Preliminary Questions

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