Compilation of objective-type interview questions and answers for Bihar Civil Judge examination!
1. Under Article 164 of the Constitution of India, Ministers in the State are appointed by the Governor and non-legislator may also be appointed as Minister. The Supreme Court has held that:
(a) an individual who is not a member of Legislature can be repeatedly appointed as Minister.
(b) there being no specific provision to the contrary, there is no restriction on this power.
(c) the provision being in the nature of a restriction, a non-legislator cannot be repeatedly appointed as Minister.
(d) the provision is in the nature of disqualification.
Ans. (c)
2. On which of the following points does Joint Hindu Family differs from Hindu coparcenary?
A. Hindu coparcenary is wider term whereas Joint Hindu Family is narrower term
B. Hindu coparcenary only include those who acquire by birth an interest in the joint or coparcenary property (With some exceptions), while Hindu joint family may include others
C. Joint Hindu Family may consist only of female members, but Hindu coparcenary cannot exist without at least one male member
D. All of the above are false
Ans: B
3. In which among the following events did Abhinav Bindra win the first ever individual Gold medal by an Indian at Beijing Olympics?
A. 50 metre Rifle
B. 50 metre Pistol
C. 10 metre Air Rifle
D. 25 metre Pistol
Ans: C
4. If a determinate human superior, not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receive habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign is that society and the society is a society ……. and ……. :
(a) Non-political and dependent
(b) Political and dependent
(c) Non-political and independent
(d) Political and independent.
Ans. (d)
5. To adjudicate on any dispute relating to inter-State rivers or inter-State river valley, the:
(a) Supreme Court only is empowered under Article 131 of the Constitution
(b) High Court of concerned State enjoy concurrent jurisdiction
(c) President of India only has power to decide
(d) Parliament is empowered to establish Tribunal and to that extent jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be extended.
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following is literal meaning of the word “sunna”?
B. Traditions
C. The trodden path
D. None of these
Ans: C
7. When did closure of bab-al-ijtihad happen?
A. Seventh century
B. Eighth century
C. Ninth century
D. Tenth century
Ans: D
8. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India, as it stands today deals with:
(a) power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
(b) procedure for amendment of the Constitution to be followed by the Parliament
(c) power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
(d) passing and ratification of Amendment Bills by State Legislature.
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the statements is not true regarding proclamation of Emergency:
(a) In absence of approval of the Parliament, the proclamation would lapse at the end of the two-month period.
(b) The Government which was dismissed cannot be revived after lapse of Proclamation in any case.
(c) If Assembly had been dissolved, it would not revive on the expiry of period of proclamation
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
10. Main areas of conflict between the Legislature and the Judiciary is/are:
(a) Existence, extent and scope of Parliamentary privileges and power of Legislatures to punish for contempt
(b) Interference in the proceedings of Parliament/Legislature.
(c) Decision given by the Presiding Officers of Legislatures under the Anti-Defection Law.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
11. Which among the following states has only one House i.e., Legislative Assembly:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka.
Ans. (a)
12. The proclamation issued under Article 356, empowers the President:
(a) to assume himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor of the State or any body or authority of the State
(b) to declare that powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (c)
13. Under Article 321 of the Constitution of India the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the:
(a) President of India
(b) Parliament
(c) Chairman of the Commission
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs.
Ans. (b)
14. Second appeal under section 100 of CPC lies:
(a) on question of facts
(b) on substantial questions of law
(c) on mixed question of law & fact
(d) all the above.
15. Provisions relating to appeal from original decree are contained in:
(a) Order XL of CPC
(b) Order XLI of CPC
(c) Order XLII of CPC
(d) Order XLVII of CPC.
Ans. (b)
16. The General Assembly of UN is the:
(a) Supplemental organ of United Nations
(b) Main deliberative organ of United Nations
(c) Not a organ of the United Nations
(d) Independent body.
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following deals with amendment of judgment, decrees or orders in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 145
B. Section 152
C. Section 148
D. Section 153
Ans. (B)
(a) for period of six months
(b) for an indefinite period unless revoked by the subsequent proclamation
(c) for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months
(d) for further period of two months only.
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following statements does NOT hold true under section 116 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. It is compulsory to hold inquiry under this section
B. Inquiry contemplated under this section is a full judicial inquiry
C. Evidence of general repute is admissible it is not necessary to give specific instances
D. The magistrate can adjourn from day to day and ask for interim bond
Ans. (D)
20. ‘Galvanometer’ measures:
(a) Pressure of grass
(b) Sound under water
(c) Electric current
(d) Relative density of liquids.
Ans. (c)
21. Which of the following cases cannot be cured by applying section 465 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. The putting of questions to an accused in the nature of cross examination before taking of evidence for the persecution
B. The failure to examine the complainant on oath
C. Pronouncing of sentence before writing the judgement
D. The omission to record relevant fact observed by a Magistrate at a local inspection under section 310 of CrPC
Ans. (A)
22. ___________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 allows a person making arrest to seize offensive weapons.
A. Section 41
B. Section 49
C. Section 52
D. Section 55
Ans. (C)
23. Which of the following statements hold true for proclamations made under section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. Magistrate issuing the proclamation must record his satisfaction that the accused has absconded or concealed himself
B. It is possible to issue Warrant and proclamation simultaneously
C. A person who left India before the issue of warrant of arrest, because he anticipated the warrant, can be regarded as absconded
D. Even absence of one day can be termed as absconding
Ans. (A)
24. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 warrant can be issued in lieu of or in addition to a summons if ___________
A. The offence is non-bailable offence
B. The Court believes that the person summoned has absconded
C. The person summoned has failed to appear
D. The time fixed for the appearing of person summoned has passed
Ans. (B)
25. Which of the following statements hold true for de nova trials?
A. Omission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not affect the core of the case can become a ground for calling de nova trial
B. A de nova trial should be the last resort
C. The Court originally trying the case can order de nova trial
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following statements regarding Executive Power of the Union is/are found to be correct?
I. The executive power of the union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the constitution.
II. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
A. I and II
B. Neither I nor II
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. A
27. B’s property is attached in exaction of a money-decree obtained by A. While the attachment is pending, B sells the property to C, who pays off a mortgage prior to A’s suit. The property is then sold in execution and is purchased by D.
A. The sale to C is not contrary to the attachment and is not against D. C may have a right of subrogation to the prior mortgagee, but that does not give him a right to possession as the mortgagee was usufructuary.
B. The sale to C is not contrary to the attachment and is not void against D. C may have a right of subrogation to the prior mortgagee, which gives him a right to possession as the mortgagee was usufructuary.
C. The sale to C being contrary to the attachment, is void as against D. C may have a right of subrogation to the prior mortgagee, but that does not give him a right to possession as the mortgagee was not usufructuary.
D. None of these
Ans. C
28. Which of the following requirement from an essential element of the defence of fair comment in the tort of defamation?
I. The matter commanded on must be of public interest
II. It must be an assertion of fact
III. It must be an expression of opinion
IV. The comment must be fair
V. The comment must be nutritional
VI. The comment must be malicious
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 4 and 5
B. 1, 3 4 and 6
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. 2, 3, 5 and 6
Ans: B
29. The defendant company has given instructions to the drover of its vehicle not to allow any unauthorized person to board the vehicle. A similar information was pasted on the vehicle itself stating that no vehicle. The driver allowed an unauthorized passenger to board and drove negligently causing an accident in which the unauthorized passenger was killed. The company is:
A. Liable because the driver was negligent in permitting the deceased to travel for which the company was vicariously liable
B. Not liable because by violation the instructions of the company, the driver was acting outside his course of employment
C. Liable because mere pasting of information the unauthorized travel was not permitted does not negate liability of the company
D. Not liable because the passenger himself had voluntarily chosen to travel in the vehicle unauthorized
Ans: B
30. A and B were assaulted by C at an interview in C’s house. A and B jointly sued C for damages for assault. It was held that the assault on A and that on B constituted two distinct causes of action, and the suit was therefore, bad for misjoinder of plaintiffs.
A. They could not join as plaintiffs in one suit on the ground that the causes of action were separate and distinct
B. They could be joined as plaintiffs in one suit on the ground that C assaulted them in his house
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. A
31. A sues B for money due on a bond. The execution of the bond is admitted, but B says that it was obtained by fraud, which A denies. If no evidence were given on either side, A would succeed, as the bond is not disputed and fraud is not proved. Applying Section 102, Indian Evidence Act:
A. the burden of proof is on A
B. the burden of proof is on B
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. B
32. A filed a suit against B for specific performance of an agreement to convey properties and in pursuance of the decree passed therein obtained possession. Then he filed a suit against B for profits received by him from the lands from the date when he ought to have conveyed the properties to the date of the decree. It was barred because:
A. The suit was not for compensation for breach of contract to convey
B. The suit was not for compensation for breach of contract to convey and should have been included in the suit for specific performance
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
33. A and B sue C for Rs 1,000.
A. C can set-off a debt due to him by B alone
B. C cannot set-off a debt due to him by A alone
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
34. Section 41, Indian Evidence Act mainly deals with:
A. property related cases of Indian Nationals and executed in India
B. homicide cases of Indian Nationals and executed in India
C. wills of Indian Nationals and executed in India
D. none of them
Ans. C
35. Which of the following is nearest to meaning of the phrase “bab-al-ijtihad”?
A. Book of one’s own exertion
B. Gate of ijtihad
C. Book of ijtihad
D. None of these
Ans: B
36. In which of the following cases the provisions of Section 21, Limitation Act, 1963 can be availed?
A. Cases where the plaintiff and the defendant have a joint cause of action
B. Cases where the plaintiff and the defendant have different cause of action
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
37. Under which of the following circumstances a surety is discharged as highlighted in various sections of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
I. By the variance in the terms if the contract between the principal-debtor and creditor (S.133)
II. By the release or discharge of the principal-debtor by the creditor (S. 134)
III. By the composition by the creditor with the principal- debtor, or when the creditor gives time to, or agrees not to sue the principal-debtor (S. 135)
IV. By an act or omission of the creditor impairing the surety’s eventual remedy (S. 139)
V. Where the creditor loses or parts with the security (S. 141)
A. II, III, IV
B. IV, V
C. I, V
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
38. In order that s. 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure, would be applicable, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?
A. The restitution sought must be in respect of the decree or order which had been varied or reversed
B. The party applying for restitution must be entitled to a benefit under a reversing decree or order
C. The relief claimed must be properly consequential on the reversal or variation of the decree or order
D. All of these
Ans. (D)
39. Provisions under Section 21, Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to which of the following?
A. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
B. Section 68, Provincial Insolvency Act
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
40. Sub-section (3) of s. 98 of the Code of Civil Procedure was inserted by:
A. Repealing and Amendment Act, 1921
B. Repealing and Amendment Act, 1925
C. Repealing and Amendment Act, 1928
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
41. Which of the following sections of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with the rules regarding “Descendents of those who convert from Hinduism to another religion”
A. Section 23
B. Section 24
C. Section 25
D. Section 26
Ans. D
42. Under which of the following circumstances as per the Special Relief Act, 1963, the Court may refuse to rescind the contract in a suit for rescission?
I. The plaintiff was has expressly or implied ratified the contract
II. Due to change in circumstances after the making of the contract (not due to the act of the defendant himself), the parties cannot be substantially restored to the positions in which they stood when the contract was made
III. Third parties have during the subsistence of the contract, acquired rights in good faith without notice and for value
IV. Only a part of the contract is sought to be rescinded and such part is not severable from the rest of the contract
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. IV
D. All of them
Ans. (D)
43. In which of the following cases was it held that “section 22 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not include interest in agricultural land of an interstate “?
A. Ram Ratan v. Chandra Prakash
B. Jeevanram v. Lachmidevi
C. Bhola Nath v. Santosh Prakash
D. Jayanilal v. Chhanlal
Ans. B
44. Which of the following other orders in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 111
B. Section 105
C. Section 108
D. Section 100
Ans. (B)
45. ___________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with summons to produce documents or things.
A. Section 89
B. Section 90
C. Section 91
D. Section 92
Ans. (C)
46. Under Marumakkattayam the management of the family property____________ in the hands of __________.
A. Could fall, the female members in case of absence of male members.
B. Was restricted to remain, male members
C. Remained, eldest member (male or female)
D. Was restricted to remain, female member
Ans. A
47. The duty referred to in s. 14, Specific Relief Act, 1963 is of which of the following character?
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Neutral
D. None of these
Ans. B
48. The defendant agreed to sell a plot of land measuring two acres of Sh 100, 000 out of which 15,000 Sh was payable at the time of the agreement and balance at the time of the sale. However, within the few minutes of her signing the agreement she repudiated it on the ground that she had agreed to sell only about of an acre. The sale was to be completed within six months of the agreement. The purchaser bought a suit for specific performance six or seven weeks before the last for completion. The defendant pleaded that the suit was premature. The plaintiff was held entitled for specific performance. Which of the following was this case?
A. Rame Gowda v. M Varadappa Naidu
B. Has ham v. Zenab
C. Kanti Lai v. Shanti Devi
D. None of them
Ans. B
49. Which of the following statements hold true regarding the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005?
A. Women can now act as Karta of the joint Hindi family, but not become one.
B. Women cannot act as Karta of the joint Hindu family, before or after passing of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
C. Women can now become Karta of the joint Hindu family
D. None of the above
Ans. C
50. What is the difference between Marumakkattayam and other schools of Hindu Law?
A. Marumakkattayam School is founded on matriarchate family, other schools are founded on agnatic family
B. Marumakkattayam School is founded on agnatic family, where others are not
C. Marumakkattayam School does not considers joint family as norm while others do
D. Marumakkattayam School does not acknowledge survivorship while other schools do
Ans. A
51. Under the now repealed Hindu Women’s Rights to property Act, 1937, which of the following was true?
A. The widow along with the sons is entitled to 1/2th of the son’s share, in case of separate property
B. In case of Mitakshara joint family, widow takes the place of husband
C. The widow along with the sons was entitled to same share as son but she was not allowed to sell or gift her share
D. All of the above are false
Ans: B
52. The Court, passing the decree of specific performance, does not cease to have jurisdiction over the decree. Which of the following actions is applicable under s. 28, Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Execute the decree
B. Rescind the decree
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
53. Section 22, Limitation Act, 1963 corresponds to which of the following sections of the Limitation Act of 1908?
A. Section 20
B. Section 21
C. Section 22
D. Section 23
Ans. (D)
54. Which of the following is incorrect:
(a) second appeal lies in a suit cognizable by the courts of small causes, when the subject- matter of original suit does not exceed Rs.3,000
(b) no second appeal lies in a suit cognizable by courts of small cause when the subject matter of original suit does not exceed Rs.3,000
(c) in second appeal, the High Court may determine any question which has not been determined or wrongly determined by the courts below
(d) both (a) & (b).
Ans. (a)
55. The doctrine of English Courts, relating strictly to the remedy of specific performance was simplified in India in which of the following Act?
A. Specific Relief Act, 1983
B. Specific Relief Act, 1877
C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
56. It was laid down in a course of judicial decisions in the _____ century that one or more members of tarwad ___ claim partition and separate possession of his or her share of the tarwad property without the consent or concurrence of all the members of the tarwad.
A. Nineteen, can
B. Twentieth, can
C. Nineteen, cannot
D. Twentieth, cannot
Ans. C
57. The defendant’s conduct of pending litigation, viz. contradicting own pleadings, also cannot be ignored in the exercise of discretion. In which of the following cases it was so held?
A. Mohd. Hanif v. Mariam Begum
B. Nathan v. Noku Ram
C. Silvey v. Arun Varghese
D. None of these
Ans. C
58. Which of the followings are considered special work on adoption?
A. Dattaka Mimansa
B. Dattaka Chandrika
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
59. Under section 100 of CPC, a second appeal can be:
(a) partly admitted & partly rejected
(b) admitted in its entirety
(c) rejected in totality
(d) either (b) or (c).
60. Which of the following statements is false with regards to valid customs under Hindu Law?
A. Custom should not be opposed to morality
B. Custom can be against public policy in certain specific cases
C. Custom should not be expressly forbidden by legislature
D. It is usage that makes the custom and not the reason of the thing
Ans: B
61. In which of the following cases was it observed that “A custom is a rule, which in particular family or a particular class or community, or in a particular district, has from long usage, obtained the force of law. It must be ancient, certain, and reasonable, and being in derogation of the general rules of law, must be construed strictly”
A. Balwant Rao v. BajiRao
B. Hurpurshad v. Sheo Dya I
C. Diwan Singh v. Bhanja Lai
D. Parbati v. Jagadis
Ans: B
62. Which of the following statements are true under now repealed Hindu Women’s Rights to property Act, 1937?
A. Interest of widow in joint property was created by inheritance under this law
B. It was necessary for a widow to take out a succession certificate for enforcing any claims or right of the husband
C. Interest created was a special type of interest, which was the creation of stature
D. None of the above
Ans: C
63. Under Shafei law, what is the age at which hizanat of a female child by her mother ends?
A. Five years
B. Seven years
C. Fifteen years
D. None of these
Ans: D
64. Under Shia law, who obtains the hizanat of a female in case both mother and father are dead?
A. Father’s father
B. Father’s brother
C. Mother’s mother
D. Mother’s full sister
Ans: A
65. Which of the following deals with Discretion as to decreeing specific performance in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 12
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. Section 20
Ans: D
66. Which of the following deals with defences respecting suits for relief based on contract in Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 2
B. Section 9
C. Section 8
D. Section 4
Ans: B
67. Which of the following deals with Contract to sell or let property by one who has no title, not specifically enforceable in the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Section 12
B. Section 15
C. Section 23
D. Section 17
Ans: D
68. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced?
I. A contract for the non-performance of which compensation is an adequate relief
II. A contract which runs into such minute or numerous details or which is dependent on the personal qualifications or volition of the parties or otherwise from its nature is such, that the Court cannot enforce specific performance on its material terms
III. A contract which is in its nature determinable
IV. A contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the Court cannot supervise
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. Ill, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
69. Which of the following clauses of s.16, Specific Relief Act, 1963 gives the circumstances which disqualify the plaintiff from specific performance?
A. Clause (a)
B. Clause (b)
C. Clause (c)
D. None of these
Ans: B
70. Which one of the following is a good defence for the tort of private nuisance?
A. The plaintiff has come to the place of nuisance
B. The activity is for the benefit of all
C. The activity has been carried on for the last 20 years
D. The plaintiff is very sensitive person
Ans: D
71. Which of the following statements hold true for Joint Hindu Family?
A. Ordinarily a Hindu Joint Family is joint is estate and food but not in worship
B. Mere severance in food can be regarded as proof of separation
C. Where there is joint estate, and the members of the family become separate in estate, the family ceases to be joint.
D. There must be at least one male member for Hindu Joint Family to exist
Ans: B
72. In which of the following cases was it decided that “existence of at least one male member is essential for constituting a joint family with other members “?
A. Krishana Prashad v. CIT Bangalore
B. Sitabaiv. Ramchandra
C. Laldas v. Motibai
D. Manga I a v. Jayabai
Ans: D
73. Mental condition of the wrong-doer at the time of wrongdoing is:
A. Relevant in all torts
B. Relevant in torts based on fault
C. Relevant in torts based on strict liability
D. Not relevant in tortuous liability
Ans: D
74. A railway company was authorized by law to run railway trains on a track. The sparks from the engine set fore to the adjoining property belonging to the plaintiff.
Which one of the following defence will be most appropriate for the defence by the plaintiff?
A. Public good
B. Nuisance due to other’s act
C. Reasonable act in conduction his business
D. Statutory authority
Ans: D
75. Fiduciary relationship usually arises in of the following situations?
I. When one person places trust in the faithfully integrity of another, who as a result gains superiority or influence over the first
II. When one person assumes control and responsibility over another
III. When one person has a duty to act or give advice to another on matters failing within the scope of the relationship
IV. When there is a specific relationship that has traditionally been recognised as involving fiduciary duties, as with a lawyer and a client or a stockbroker and a customer
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. I, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
76. Which of the following clauses of s. 18, Specific Relief Act deals with defect or insufficiency in the document arising out of the circumstances at the time of making the contract?
A. Clause (a)
B. Clause (b)
C. Clause (d)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
77. When a negotiable instrument is drawn by a partner in a trading firm, the other partner is not any less liable, because his name does not appear on the face of the instrument. To such a relationship which of the following maxim applies and a person who does an act through another is deemed to do it himself?
A. actus curaie neminem gravabit
B. ejusdem generis
C. qui facit per alium facit per se
D. None of these
Ans: C
78. A partner in a mercantile firm has authority to draw and accept bills on behalf of the firm, and even if such implied authority has been expressly cancelled but such cancellation had not been brought to the notice of discounting banks. Which of the following is the appropriate conclusion of the matter?
A. The discounting banks are not entitled to recover against other partners
B. The discounting banks are entitled to recover against other partners
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
79. A suit by one partner for partnership accounts based on an express agreement to distribute the profits every year is therefore governed by which of the following Articles?
A. Art. 117
B. Art. 118
C. Art. 119
D. Art. 120
Ans: D
80. Which of the following is the test of business?
A. Whether there is any activity capable of being described as a business for that venture
B. Whether there is more than one transaction or venture
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A
81. The act by which Queen Victoria took the title “Empress of India”
A. Act of Parliament, 1876
B. Indian Council Act, 1861
C. Indian Charter Act, 1893
D. Charter Act, 1858
Ans: A
82. Who invented the Thermos Flask?
A. James Dewar
B. Thomas Alva Edison
C. Humphry Davy
D. Richard J. Galling
Ans: A
83. Who was the fourth Sikh Guru?
A. Guru Ram Das
B. Guru Gobind Singh
C. Guru Arjun Dev
D. Guru HarRai
Ans: A
84. The first Uranium mine of India, the Jadugoda mines, are located in
A. West Bengal
B. Odisha
C. Jharkhand
D. Chhattisgarh
Ans: C
85. What is the meaning of the motto ‘Citius, Altius, Fortius’ of the Olympic Games?
A. Faster, Higher, Stronger
B. James Connelly
C. Mark Spitz
D. Abebe Bikila
Ans: A
86. Which architect designed the city of Chandigarh?
A. Edwin Lutyens
B. Le Corbusier
C. Charles Correa
D. Herbert Baker
Ans: B
87. After many years, Javan Rhinos were found in March 2009 in which one of the following countries?
A. China
B. Malaysia
C. Indonesia
D. Thailand
Ans: C
88. ‘Spark’ is the model of a car of which car manufacturing company?
A. Ford
B. Chevrolet
C. Toyota
D. Honda
Ans: B
89. Which company purchased Satyam Computer Services in April 2009 by quoting the highest bid?
A. L&T
B. W. L. Ross
C. Infosys
D. Tech Mahindra
Ans: D
90. Most powerful and oldest Legislature in the world is:
(a) White House
(b) British Parliament
(c) Swiss Parliament
(d) Australian Parliament.
Ans. (b)
91. Who ordered firing at Jallianwala Bagh (Punjab) Massacre:
(a) Gen. Saudras
(b) Gen. Simon
(c) Gen. Curzon
(d) Gen. O’Dyer.
Ans. (d)
92. Justice Ranade was associated with:
(a) Native (Civil) Marriages Act, 1872
(b) Widow Remarriages Association
(c) Bomb attack at Muzaffarpur
(d) Neel Darpan.
Ans. (b)
93. The territorial waters of India extend up to:
(a) 12 nautical miles into sea from shore
(b) 6 km into sea from shore
(c) 10 nautical miles into sea from shore
(d) 15 nautical miles into sea from shore.
Ans. (a)
94. The Islands that lie between India and Sri Lanka:
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Andman Nicobar Island
(d) Elephanta.
Ans. (b)
95. Which Indian State is not bisected by the Tropic of Cancer:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan.
Ans. (d)
96. The Southern-most point of Indian territory is:
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Trivandrum
(c) Indira point
(d) Chennai.
Ans. (c)
97. Vandemataram the song is a part of literary work:
(a) Gitanjali
(b) Anand Math
(c) Utsarg
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
98. January 26 was selected as the date of the inauguration of the Constitution because:
(a) The Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930
(b) It was considered to be an auspicious day
(c) On that day Quit India Movement was started in 1942
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
99. On which date the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force:
(a) 26th January, 1957
(b) 26th November, 1946
(c) 26th January, 1950
(d) 15th August, 1947.
Ans. (a)
100. The Preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on:
(a) Right to life
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
101. Article 361 of the Constitution exempts the following from jurisdiction of the Penal Code:
(a) President
(b) Governors
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
102. On December 25 the day-time becomes longer, it is called:
(a) Solar axis
(b) Solastic axis
(c) Galaxy
(d) Winter Solstice Illumination.
Ans. (d)
103. The main function of Vice-President is:
(a) Ceremonial
(b) Presiding over Rajya Sabha
(c) Officiating as President in his absence
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Ans. (d)
104. Which of the following ideas is/are closely associated with the idea of secularism in India:
1. Equality of citizenship and nondiscrimination.
2. Non-involvement of State in religious matters including personal law.
3. Freedom of belief and worship.
4. Equal and free access to educational institutions till 10th standard or its equivalent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 only.
Ans. (a)
105. The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State. Which of the following procedures is/are true in this regard:
1. By a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process
2. On the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refer the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill
3. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only.
Ans. (a)
106. The Indian Navy successfully conducted the maiden firing of an anti-ship missile from an indigenously built scorpene class submarine:
(a) INS Chakra
(b) INS Arihant
(c) INS Kalvari
(d) INS Khanderi.
Ans. (c)
107. The Parliament passed the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill which raises the maternity leave for all working women from 12 weeks to:
(a) 18 weeks
(b) 20 weeks
(c) 24 weeks
(d) 26 weeks.
Ans. (c)
108. Who has been selected for the C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award:
(a) Rajinder Goel
(b) Padmakar Shivalkar
(c) Shantha Rangaswamy
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
109. Which State announced “Tirtha Darshan” Scheme under which senior citizens of the State will be able to go on pilgrimage within the country on government expenses:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Haryana
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra.
Ans. (b)
110. Consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court, for the first time in the history of independent India, issued a contempt of court notice against a sitting High Court Judge for allegedly disgracing the judicial institution and impeding the course of justice administration.
II. The Supreme Court has taken suo motu cognizance of Justice C.S. Karnan’s letters and conduct.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
111. The Montreal Protocol was signed under the aegis of:
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) United Nations Children Welfare’s Plan
(c) UNESCO
(d) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty.
Ans. (a)
112. As we see every day, many Indian banks are in close competition to open their branches/ offices in various countries. What benefit will the Indian economy have if banks open branches in a foreign country:
(A) It will bring substantial economic benefits to India and also to the countries where branches will be opened
(B) It will help in smooth inflow of FDI, long term capital inflow and also technical know- how to India.
(C) It will give better opportunities to Indians to visit foreign nations and get better facilities like education, medical treatment, etc.
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (B).
Ans. (d)
113. India is not member of which of the following organisations:
(a) INTERPOL
(b) G-15
(c) UNO
(d) G-7.
Ans. (d)
114. Which of the following is not a Direct tax:
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Estate tax
(d) Value Added Tax
Ans. (d)
115. Which one of the following plan duration is related to Xllth five-year Plan in India:
(a) 2005-10
(b) 2006-11
(c) 2012-17
(d) 2008-13
Ans. (c)
116. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for:
(a) Internet banking
(b) Credit Card
(c) Saving Account in the Bank
(d) Current Account in the Bank
Ans. (b)
117. What was the name of the reality show in which Jade Goody, who died recently of cancer, had a rift with Indian actress Shilpa Shetty?
A. Big Boss
B. Big Brother
C. American Idol
D. Indian Idol
Ans: B
118. Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. ‘Officio’ means:
(a) Part time
(b) By virtue of his office
(c) Chairman
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
119. Article 2 of the UN Charter enshrines seven fundamental guiding principles for the functioning of UN. Which is not among them:
(a) Principle of Sovereign Equality of States
(b) Settlement of disputes by peaceful means
(c) Abjurement of war
(d) Absolute non-intervention of UN in matters between States.
Ans. (d)
120. General Assembly of UN consists of representatives of all Member States. Each State has one vote, but it can send:
(a) 1 representative
(b) 2 representatives
(c) 3 representatives
(d) 5 representatives.
Ans. (d)
121. Multiple types of rules, such as, rules of clubs, law of fashion, laws of natural science, the rules of international law, Austin names all these:
(a) Positive law
(b) Natural law
(c) Positive morality
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Ans. (c)
122. At a particular speed, a bus starts vibrating violently due to the phenomenon of:
(a) Pitch
(b) Rumbling
(c) Balling
(d) Resonance.
Ans. (d)
123. Which of the following statements about ASEAN is not correct:
(a) India is a founder member of ASEAN
(b) Its objectives were primarily to accelerate ‘economic and social progress and cultural development’
(c) It is committed primarily to promote regional peace and stability
(d) It encourage negotiation over conflict in the region.
Ans. (a)
124. Unit of current is:
(a) Watt
(b) Ampere
(c) Ohm
(d) Volt.
Ans. (b)
125. In communication satellites the term ‘SAS&R’ stands for which provides distress alert etc.:
(a) System Aided Search and Rescue
(b) Satellite Aided Search and Rescue
(c) Satellite Aided Search and Research
Ans. (b)
126. The INSAT – 2D satellite was abandoned in 1997 because of which of the following reasons:
(a) launch was not successful
(b) short-circuit in power lines
(c) failure in controlling system
(d) collision with asteroid.
Ans. (b)
127. When was the Union Government approved a Satellite Communication policy allowing INSAT transponders to be leased to non-government users and letting private Indian entrepreneurs establish their own communication satellites:
(a) 1996
(h) 1997
(c) 2000
(d) 2003.
Ans. (b)
128. Austin’s claim that the sovereign must be:
(a) illimitable
(b) indivisible
(c) continuous
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
129. Which of the following statements hold true regarding cases of legitimacy under Indian System of law?
A. The courts can order blood test as a matter of course
B. No one can be compelled to give sample of blood for analysis
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
130. First demand for Independent Pakistan was made during Viceroyship of:
(a) Lintlithgow
(b) Wavell
(c) Irwin
(d) Mountbatten.
Ans. (a)
131. In the annual meeting of the General Assembly of United Nations (UN) the member State can have:
(a) 5 representatives
(b) 10 representatives
(c) 7 representatives
(d) 15 representatives.
Ans. (a)